Sec+ Practice Test 1

Question 1

1. Dion Training wants to increase the trustworthiness of its website for its clients. They are seeking a certificate that is signed and verified by a recognized external authority. What type of certificate should they pursue?

   Options:

   • Self-signed certificate
   • Third-party certificate
   • CSR
   • Wildcard certificate

   Overall explanation:

   • Dion Training should pursue a third-party certificate, which is signed and verified by a recognized external certificate authority. This validation provides a higher trust in public and external environments compared to self-signed certificates.
   • A CSR (Certificate Signing Request) is a formal request to a CA for a digital certificate, not a certificate type in itself.
   • Signed by its creator, a self-signed certificate might not be viewed as trustworthy in external environments due to a lack of third-party verification.
   • A wildcard certificate secures multiple subdomains under one main domain but doesn't necessarily indicate external trust or CA verification.

   Tags: Digital Certificates

Question 2

2. Instances VM, a virtual computing company, is developing company wide standards for managing cryptographic keys. They are setting policies for the life of the keys from generation to deletion. What are they developing?

   Options:

   • Secure Enclave
   • Hardware Security Module (HSM)
   • Trusted Platform Module (TPM)
   • Key Management System

   Overall explanation:

   • Key Management System is a process used to ensure that keys are kept secure by establishing standards of security. It is a set of policy decisions, not a chip or device such as TPM, HSM, and Secure Enclave.
   • Secure Enclave is a chip that is used only to secure encryption keys, hashes, and other important data. It is embedded in Apple and Android devices.
   • An HSM is a physical computing device that safeguards and manages digital keys for strong authentication. It can be a external device or on an expansion card, but it is not embedded on the motherboard.
   • TPM is a hardware-based storage system that contains keys, digital certificates, hashed passwords, and many other types of information used for authentication. It is embedded on device motherboards that use Windows operating systems.

   Tags: Encryption Tools

Question 3

3. Constance is logging into their bank account online. The website makes sure that she has the correct username and password. This is an example of which common method for authenticating people?

   Options:

   • Location-based authentication
   • Knowledge-based authentication
   • Possession-based authentication
   • Biometric authentication

   Overall explanation:

   • A username and password are examples of knowledge-based authentication, which is a common method for authenticating people.
   • Biometric authentication refers to the use of a biometric characteristic, such as a fingerprint or facial recognition, for authentication.
   • Possession-based authentication refers to the use of a physical object, such as a smart card or token, for authentication.
   • Location-based authentication uses the location where a person is when accessing a site and uses this in order to authenticate the user.

   Tags: Multifactor Authentication (MFA)

Question 4

4. Love Road, a matchmaking service, wants to implement a security measure to protect their systems and networks. For example, they could implement an intrusion prevention system (IPS) to monitor network traffic and prevent security threats. Which of the following types of security controls is an IPS?

   Options:

   • Physical
   • Managerial
   • Operational
   • Technical

   Overall explanation:

   • Technical security controls are measures that are put in place to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of a system or network. These controls can include firewalls, intrusion detection/prevention systems, encryption, and access controls.
   • Managerial security controls are measures that involve managing and directing the overall security of an organization. These controls can include risk assessments, security awareness training, and incident response planning.
   • Physical security controls are measures that involve protecting an organization’s physical assets. These controls can include security cameras, locks, and security badges.
   • Operational security controls are measures that involve the day-to-day operations of an organization’s security. These controls can include backup and recovery procedures, configuration management, and media protection.

   Tags: Security Control Categories

Question 5

5. Which of the following certificates is issued by a recognized external authority and inherently carries more trust for users and systems unfamiliar with the certificate's originator?

   Options:

   • Public key
   • Certificate revocation list
   • Private key
   • Third-party certificate

   Overall explanation:

   • A third-party certificate is signed and verified by a recognized external certificate authority. This validation provides higher trust in public and external environments compared to self-signed certificates.
   • A certificate revocation list is a list that keeps track of certificates that have been revoked by the certificate authority before their expiration date. It isn’t a certificate type.
   • A public key is used in asymmetric encryption, it's paired with a private key but isn't a type of certificate on its own.
   • A private key is a cryptographic key used for decrypting or signing data. It isn’t a certificate type.

   Tags: Digital Certificates

Question 6

6. Wise Technologies has created fake usernames or passwords in order to attract attackers who are trying to gather login credentials for their accounting and finance applications. They hope this will lure attackers away from real login credentials. Which of the following have they created?

   Options:

   • Honeypot
   • Honeyfile
   • Honeynet
   • Honeytoken

   Overall explanation:

   • A honeytoken is fake piece of data, such as username or password ,designed appear valuable or sensitive in order attract attackers.
   • A honeynet is a network of honeypots designed to simulate real network and attract attackers.
   • A honeypot is a cybersecurity mechanism that uses a manufactured attack target to lure cybercriminals away from legitimate targets and gather intelligence about their identity, methods, and motivations.
   • A honeynet is a network of honeypots designed to simulate real network and attract attackers.

   Tags: Outsmarting Threat Actors

Question 7

7. Which of the following control types BEST describes the use of surveillance cameras to record and identify malicious activities occurring around a facility after they've happened?

   Options:

   • Detective Control
   • Directive Control
   • Deterrent Control
   • Corrective Control

   Overall explanation:

   • A detective control is designed to detect and react to incidents that have occurred. Surveillance cameras don't prevent the incident but help in identifying the events after they've happened.
   • A deterrent control is intended to discourage potential attackers from malicious activities. While surveillance cameras might act as a mild deterrent, their primary function is to detect incidents post-factum.
   • Corrective controls act to bring the system back to its desired state after an incident. They don't typically involve detecting the incident itself.
   • Directive controls guide consistent behavior or actions within an organization. They don't detect events after they've happened.

   Tags: Security Control Types

Question 8

8. A company wants to implement a system that can authenticate both users and devices before granting access to resources. For example, the system might check the user’s credentials as well as the device’s security posture before granting access. Which of the following components is responsible for making this decision?

   Options:

   • Policy administrator
   • Subject/System
   • Policy engine
   • Policy enforcement point

   Overall explanation:

   • The policy engine is responsible for making access control decisions based on pre-defined policies and contextual information about the subject/system.
   • The policy enforcement point is responsible for enforcing the access control decisions made by the policy engine.
   • The policy administrator is responsible for defining and managing the access control policies used by the policy engine.
   • The subject/system refers to the entity (user or device) that is requesting access to a resource.

   Tags: Zero Trust

Question 9

9. Nicola, an IT manager, is considering an encryption method that uses public and private keys for encryption and decryption. What type of encryption is being considered?

   Options:

   • Communication encryption
   • Key exchange
   • Asymmetric encryption
   • Symmetric encryption

   Overall explanation:

   • Asymmetric encryption, also known as public-key cryptography, involves two keys: a public key and a private key. The public key is used to encrypt data, while the private key is used to decrypt it. Only the corresponding private key can decrypt data encrypted with its associated public key, ensuring secure communication and data integrity.
   • Communication encryption encrypts data while it is being transferred from one location to another, but it doesn't use different keys for encryption and decryption.
   • Key exchange involves the exchange of cryptographic keys between two parties, but it doesn't use different keys for encryption and decryption.
   • Symmetric encryption uses the same key for both encryption and decryption, but it doesn't use different keys for encryption and decryption.

   Tags: Asymmetric Encryption

Question 10

10. Kelly Innovations Corp, an IT company, is implementing a process in encryption where two parties establish a shared secret for communication purposes. Which of the following MOST describes this process?

    Options:

    • Symmetric encryption
    • Asymmetric encryption
    • Hashing
    • Key exchange

    Overall explanation:

    • Key exchange is a process in which two communicating parties establish a shared secret key, typically used for symmetric encryption. This key is established in a manner so that eavesdroppers, even if they intercept the key exchange messages, cannot determine the shared key.
    • The most common method for key exchange is the Diffie-Hellman protocol.  Symmetric encryption the same key for both encryption and decryption, but it doesn't involve the exchange of cryptographic keys.
    • Hashing involves converting input data (often called a message) into a fixed-length string of bytes. It's primarily used for data integrity checks and is not reversible, meaning you cannot retrieve the original input from its hash. Therefore, it isn't suitable for the purpose of exchanging cryptographic keys or establishing shared secrets for communication.
    • Asymmetric encryption uses different keys for encryption and decryption, but it doesn't involve the exchange of cryptographic keys.

    Tags: Symmetric Encryption

Question 11

11. Some Spike It Hot, a cafe, wants to use a physical control that acts as a deterrent. Which of the following would be best for this purpose?

    Options:

    • Lightning
    • Access badge
    • Fencing
    • Video surveillance

    Overall explanation:

    • Lighting is used to illuminate areas, often to deter criminal activity or enhance safety. This matches the method being used in the scenario.
    • An access badge is a card that employees use to gain access to certain areas within a company building. It does not involve the illumination of areas to deter criminal activity or enhance safety.
    • Video surveillance involves the use of cameras to monitor activities in a given area. It does not involve the illumination of areas to deter criminal activity or enhance safety.
    • Fencing involves the use of barriers to prevent or control access to a property. It does not involve the illumination of areas to deter criminal activity or enhance safety.

    Tags: Security Control Types

Question 12

12. After the launch of their latest online campaign, customers of E-ShopHub reported being redirected to a different website with similar design but promoting different products. On investigation, the IT team discovered that the DNS entries were not modified, but the domain registration details were changed, making it point to a different web hosting service. Which of the following terms refers to this malicious act?

    Options:

    • Domain hijacking
    • ARP spoofing
    • Phishing campaign
    • DNS poisoning

    Overall explanation:

    • Domain hijacking, also known as domain theft, refers to the act of changing the registration of a domain name without the permission of its original registrant. It results in the domain pointing to a different location, often with malicious intent.
    • ARP spoofing is a type of attack where an attacker sends fake Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) messages onto a local network. This is unrelated to domain registration or DNS.
    • A phishing campaign involves sending deceptive communications, often emails, to trick recipients into revealing sensitive information. It is not related to altering domain registration details.
    • DNS poisoning involves altering or adding records to a DNS server, redirecting domain's traffic to a different IP address. While it can result in redirection, it doesn't involve changing the domain's registration details.

    Tags: Domain Name System (DNS) Attacks

Question 13

13. Kendra is testing the security of a web application and finds that it is vulnerable to a type of attack that involves capturing and retransmitting data, such as authentication tokens or credentials, to impersonate a legitimate user. Which of the following application attacks is BEST able to exploit this vulnerability?

    Options:

    • Injection
    • Buffer overflow
    • Replay
    • Privilege escalation

    Overall explanation:

    • A replay attack is a type of application attack that involves capturing and retransmitting data, such as authentication tokens or credentials, to impersonate a legitimate user or session.
    • A privilege escalation attack is a type of application attack that involves exploiting a vulnerability or misconfiguration to gain higher privileges or access than intended on a system or application.
    • An injection attack is a type of application attack that involves inserting malicious code or commands into an application or database to execute unauthorized actions or access sensitive data.
    • A buffer overflow attack is a type of application attack that involves sending more data than expected to a function, causing it to overwrite adjacent memory locations and execute arbitrary code.

    Tags: Replay Attacks

Question 14

14. Which mitigation technique involves shutting off specific entry and exit points in a system to prevent potential vulnerabilities or unauthorized access?

    Options:

    • Encryption
    • Segmentation
    • Disabling ports
    • Monitoring

    Overall explanation:

    • Disabling ports is the act of turning off specific communication points in a system to reduce potential vulnerabilities or halt unauthorized access.
    • Monitoring is the continuous observation and checking of a system or network to ensure its functionality and security. It is not directly related to shutting off communication points.
    • Segmentation is the dividing a network into different parts or segments for security and performance enhancement, but not specifically about shutting off communication points.
    • Encryption is the process of converting data into a code to prevent unauthorized access. It doesn't deal with turning off specific entry or exit points in a system.

    Tags: Hardening

Question 15

15. What is the term for a type of open service port that is commonly used for remote access servers and can be used to perform man-in-the-middle attacks on a Windows computer, but not on computers using other operating systems?

    Options:

    • SSH
    • VNC
    • Telnet
    • RDP

    Overall explanation:

    • Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) port is a type of open service port that is commonly used for remote desktop servers and can be exploited by attackers to perform screen capture, keystroke logging, or malware delivery attacks. It is the default port for RDP, the protocol used to remotely control a Windows based system’s desktop.
    • Telnet port is a type of open service port that is commonly used for remote access servers and can be exploited by attackers to perform eavesdropping, data theft, or brute force attacks. It is the default port for Telnet, the protocol used to access remote systems without encryption. Telnet is cross-platform, not Windows based.
    • Virtual Network Computing (VNC) port is a type of open service port that is commonly used for remote desktop servers and can be exploited by attackers to perform screen capture, keystroke logging, or malware delivery attacks. It is the default port for VNC, the protocol used to remotely view and interact with a system’s desktop. It is not specific to Windows-based systems.
    • Secure Shell (SSH) port is a type of open service port that is commonly used for remote access servers and can be exploited by attackers to perform man-in-the-middle attacks, such as session hijacking or replay. It is the default port for SSH, the protocol used to securely access remote systems. SSH is cross-platform, not Windows based.

    Tags: VNC - RDP

Question 16

16. Which of the following is a type of human vector attack that involves creating a fake website address or domain name that resembles a legitimate one, but with slight spelling or punctuation differences?

    Options:

    • Typosquatting
    • Impersonation
    • Pretexting
    • Business email compromise

    Overall explanation:

    • Typosquatting is a type of human vector/social engineering attack that involves creating a fake website or domain name that resembles a legitimate one, but with slight spelling or punctuation differences.
    • Pretexting is a type of human vector/social engineering attack that involves creating a fabricated scenario or pretext to justify the request for confidential information or action from the target.
    • Impersonation is a type of human vector/social engineering attack that involves pretending to be someone else, such as an authority figure or a trusted person, to persuade users to share confidential information or perform certain actions.
    • Business email compromise is a type of human vector/social engineering attack that involves compromising or spoofing a legitimate business email account to request fraudulent payments or transfers from unsuspecting employees or customers.

    Tags: Impersonation

Question 17

17. Sam, a security engineer, is testing the security of a web application and finds that it is vulnerable to a type of attack that involves sending more data than expected to a function, causing it to overwrite adjacent memory locations and execute arbitrary code. Which of the following application attacks is BEST described by this vulnerability?

    Options:

    • Buffer overflow
    • Injection
    • Replay
    • Privilege escalation

    Overall explanation:

    • A buffer overflow attack is a type of application attack that involves sending more data than expected to a function, causing it to overwrite adjacent memory locations and execute arbitrary code.
    • A privilege escalation attack is a type of application attack that involves exploiting a vulnerability or misconfiguration to gain higher privileges or access than intended on a system or application.
    • A replay attack is a type of application attack that involves capturing and retransmitting data, such as authentication tokens or credentials, to impersonate a legitimate user or session.
    • An injection attack is a type of application attack that involves inserting malicious code or commands into an application or database to execute unauthorized actions or access sensitive data.

    Tags: Buffer Overflow

Question 18

18. Which of the following terms refers to a strategy combining espionage, disinformation, hacking, and the use of diplomatic assets often executed by state actors?

    Options:

    • Hybrid warfare
    • Soft power
    • Cyber diplomacy
    • Counterintelligence operations

    Overall explanation:

    • Hybrid warfare is a strategy where state actors use a mix of espionage, disinformation, hacking, and soft power to achieve their objectives, offering a multifaceted approach to conflict.
    • Cyber diplomacy deals with the management of international relations in the digital realm, not necessarily the multifaceted approach of hybrid warfare.
    • While soft power is a component of hybrid warfare, by itself, it refers to using diplomatic and cultural assets to influence but doesn't include espionage or hacking.
    • Counterintelligence operations focus on preventing adversaries from obtaining secret information and do not encompass a broad range of strategies like hybrid warfare.

Question 19

19. Which of the following mitigation techniques can help prevent exploitation of known vulnerabilities on systems and devices by keeping the software current?

    Options:

    • Patching
    • Decommissioning
    • Encryption
    • Configuration Enforcement

    Overall explanation:

    • Patching is a technique that can help prevent exploitation of known vulnerabilities on systems and devices by updating them with the latest security fixes and enhancements. Patching involves applying patches or updates to software and systems, which can fix bugs, improve performance, or add new features or security measures.
    • Configuration enforcement is a mitigation technique that can help prevent unauthorized or improper changes that increase a system or device’s vulnerability to attack. By creating predefined security standards and policies, and enforcing them, configuration enforcement helps prevent the inadvertent or purposeful creation of vulnerabilities and security risks.  This sets a baseline for settings, but doesn't keep the version up to date.
    • Decommissioning is a mitigation technique that can help reduce the risk of data breaches or theft by properly disposing of systems and devices that are no longer needed or used. Decommissioning involves following a set of procedures to erase or destroy any sensitive data stored on the systems and devices, and to physically dispose of them in a safe and environmentally friendly manner. This focuses on getting rid of old equipment, not keeping software up to date.
    • Encryption is a technique that can help protect data from unauthorized access or modification by transforming it into an unreadable format. Encryption involves using mathematical algorithms and secret keys to encrypt and decrypt data, but they do not prevent exploitation of known vulnerabilities on systems and devices.

    Tags: Patch Management

Question 20

20. You are working as an IT consultant for a small business and you need to install some software on their systems. You download the software from the vendor’s website and run the installer. However, you notice that the installer requires you to install another program that you are not familiar with. What type of attack vector could this be an example of?

    Options:

    • Supply chain
    • Unsupported systems and applications
    • Message-based
    • Default credentials

    Overall explanation:

    • Supply chain attacks involve compromising a third-party entity that provides products or services to a target organization, such as vendors, suppliers, or managed service providers. The goal is to use the compromised entity to deliver malware or perform other malicious actions to the target organization.
    • Message-based attacks use email or other electronic messages to trick victims into revealing sensitive information or performing malicious actions. Unsupported systems and applications are systems or applications that are no longer receiving security updates or patches from their developers.
    • Unsupported systems and applications may have vulnerabilities that can be exploited by attackers to gain unauthorized access or cause harm. In this case, the software is being supported.
    • Default credentials are usernames and passwords that are set by default for certain devices or applications. Default credentials can be easily guessed by attackers and used to gain access to the system or the network.

    Tags: Supply Chain Attacks

Question 21

21. Dion Training Solutions implemented a new authentication system for their internal applications. The system ensures that authentication data can only be used for a single session and requires both the client and server to prove their identity by using a unique ticketing system. Which of the following authentication mechanisms is Dion Training Solutions MOST likely using to prevent credential replay attacks

    Options:

    • SAML
    • LDAP
    • Kerberos
    • OAuth

    Overall explanation:

    • Kerberos is an authentication protocol that uses tickets to prevent eavesdropping and replay attacks. It relies on a trusted third-party, the Key Distribution Center (KDC), to facilitate mutual authentication between clients and services.
    • SAML is an XML-based standard for exchanging authentication and authorization data between parties. It's focused more on Single Sign-On (SSO) and doesn't use the Kerberos ticketing mechanism.
    • OAuth is an open standard for access delegation. It allows third-party services to use account information without exposing user passwords. However, it doesn't use a ticketing.
    • LDAP is a protocol used to access and manage directory information over a network. While it can be used for authentication, it does not inherently prevent credential replay.

    Tags: Single Sign-On (SSO)

Question 22

22. You are visiting a website that is related to your hobby and you see an article that interests you. You click on the article and it takes you to another website that asks you to install a browser extension to view the content. However, the browser extension is actually a malware that steals your browsing history and personal information. What type of attack is this an example of?

    Options:

    • Business email compromise
    • Brand impersonation
    • Watering hole
    • Impersonation

    Overall explanation:

    • Watering hole is a form of cyberattack that involves compromising a legitimate website that is frequented by a specific group of users, such as employees of a certain organization. The goal is to infect the users’ systems with malware when they visit the website.
    • Brand impersonation is a form of cyberattack that involves creating fake websites, emails, or social media accounts that mimic legitimate ones. The goal is to deceive users into trusting the fake entity and revealing their information or performing malicious actions.
    • Impersonation is a form of social engineering that involves pretending to be someone else in order to obtain information or access from a victim.
    • Business email compromise is a form of cyberattack that involves compromising an email account of a person in authority, such as a CEO or a manager, and using it to send fraudulent requests or instructions to other employees or partners. The goal is to trick them into transferring money or disclosing confidential information.

    Tags: Impersonation#Watering Hole Attacks

Question 23

23. Hani, a security analyst, is investigating a malware incident and finds that the malware was placed on the computers several weeks ago. At midnight last night, the malware released a virus on four servers which spread throughout the organization's computers. The CEO has discovered a message from a former employee saying that he had left a surprise for the company. Which of the following types of malware is MOST likely involved in this incident?

    Options:

    • Worm
    • Ransomware
    • Logic bomb
    • Trojan

    Overall explanation:

    • A logic bomb is a type of malware that executes a malicious action when a specific condition or trigger is met, such as a date, time, or event.
    • A Trojan is a type of malware that disguises itself as a legitimate or benign program, but performs malicious actions when executed.
    • A worm is a type of malware that self-replicates and spreads to other systems or networks without user interaction.
    • Ransomware is a type of malware that encrypts the data or files on a system and demands a ransom for their decryption or restoration.

    Tags: Worms

Question 24

24. Natasha, a systems administrator, was alerted about an issue on a company server. Despite the server appearing to operate normally, there were reports of unauthorized access to sensitive data. Upon inspection, Natasha noticed that standard tools like tasklist and netstat were not showing any unauthorized processes or connections. However, she discovered some oddly named system files that closely resembled genuine system executables. Which of the following types of malware is Natasha MOST likely dealing with?

    Options:

    • Spyware
    • Ransomware
    • Rootkit
    • Virus

    Overall explanation:

    • Rootkits can conceal their presence by compromising system files and programming interfaces. The odd system files that resemble genuine executables are indicative of a rootkit's attempt to disguise its presence.
    • Ransomware focuses on encrypting user files and demanding a ransom for their decryption. There's no mention of encrypted files or ransom demands.
    • Spyware is designed to monitor user behavior and capture data but doesn't typically hide processes or connections in the manner described.
    • A virus attaches itself to a legitimate program and spreads, but the concealment tactics described are more in line with rootkits.

    Tags: Rootkits

Question 25

25. Which of the following is a type of race condition that occurs when a process verifies the state or value of a resource before using it, but another process changes it in between?

    Options:

    • Time-of-use (TOU)
    • Buffer overflow
    • Virtual machine (VM) escape
    • Time-of-check (TOC)

    Overall explanation:

    • Time-of-check (TOC) is a type of race condition that occurs when a process checks the state or value of a resource before using it, but another process changes it in between. It can lead to incorrect or unauthorized actions based on outdated information.
    • Virtual machine (VM) escape is a different type of security vulnerability. A VM escape occurs when a user or process running within a virtual machine is able to break out and interact with the host system, potentially compromising it. This is a serious security concern because virtual machines are designed to be isolated from the host system and from each other.
    • Buffer overflow is a type of memory corruption that occurs when a program writes more data than the allocated buffer can hold, causing it to overwrite adjacent memory locations. It can lead to crashes, code execution, or privilege escalation.
    • Time-of-use (TOU) is a type of race condition that occurs when a process uses a resource based on the assumption that it has not changed since the last check, but another process has changed it in between. It can lead to incorrect or unauthorized actions based on invalid assumptions.

    Tags: Race Conditions

Question 26

26. Who among the following represents the pinnacle of capability, potentially leveraging both digital and non-digital means to achieve their objectives?

    Options:

    • Grey hat hacker
    • Whistleblower
    • State-sponsored Advanced Persistent Threat
    • Troll

    Overall explanation:

    • State-sponsored Advanced Persistent Threats, backed by nation states, not only utilize sophisticated cyber tools but also have potential access to political or military assets.
    • A whistleblower is an individual who exposes confidential or classified information, often for ethical reasons.
    • Grey hat hackers operate between ethical and malicious intent, often seeking vulnerabilities but not for malevolent purposes.
    • A troll engages in online disruptions, often seeking emotional reactions but not necessarily having high-end capabilities.

    Tags: Nation-state Actor

Question 27

27. A company’s cloud environment is compromised and sensitive data is stolen. Upon investigation, it is discovered that an attacker was able to exploit a vulnerability in the encryption used to protect data in transit. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?

    Options:

    • Insider threat
    • Misconfiguration
    • Cryptographic vulnerability
    • Third-party vendor risk

    Overall explanation:

    • A cryptographic vulnerability is a weakness in the encryption or decryption of data that can be exploited by an attacker to gain unauthorized access or cause harm.
    • An insider threat is a current or former employee or contractor who intentionally causes harm to a company’s systems or data, but this is not the most likely cause of the issue described.
    • Misconfiguration of systems and applications can leave them vulnerable to attacks, but it does not directly relate to vulnerabilities in encryption.
    • Third-party vendor risk refers to the potential for harm caused by vendors who have access to a company’s systems or data, but it does not directly relate to vulnerabilities in encryption.

    Tags: Cryptographic Attacks

Question 28

28. Claudius left their access card at the grocery store. He reports it to the security team.  Which of the following attacks should the security team be most concerned about?

    Options:

    • Environmental
    • Radio frequency identification (RFID) cloning
    • Dictionary
    • Brute force

    Overall explanation:

    • RFID cloning is a type of physical attack that involves copying the data from an RFID tag, such as an access card or badge, and using it to create a duplicate tag that can be used for unauthorized access.
    • A dictionary attack is a password attack in which an attacker uses common passwords to try to gain access to a computer. Having a lost ID badge doesn't make this type of attack more likely.
    • Brute force is a type of physical attack that involves trying different combinations of keys, codes, or passwords to gain access to a locked area or device. Having a lost ID badge doesn't make this type of attack more likely.
    • Environmental is a type of physical attack that involves exploiting natural or man-made disasters, such as fires, floods, earthquakes, or power outages, to compromise the physical security of a system or facility. Having a lost ID badge doesn't make this type of attack more likely.

    Tags: Access Badge Cloning

Question 29

29. Jasmine, the manager of a local bank, was puzzled. Every Monday morning, she would find her safe's electronic keypad non-responsive, showing a "maximum attempts reached" error message. However, security footage did not show anyone physically attempting to open the safe over the weekend. Which of the following types of malicious activities is BEST described in this scenario?

    Options:

    • RFID cloning
    • Environmental attack
    • Phishing
    • Brute force

    Overall explanation:

    • Brute force attacks involve trying multiple combinations until the correct one is found. The "maximum attempts reached" error suggests that someone or something has been trying numerous combinations on the safe's electronic keypad.
    • An environmental attack refers to exploiting environmental factors, and there's no evidence of that in this situation.
    • Phishing is a method used to trick individuals into revealing sensitive information, typically online, and isn't relevant to this physical security scenario.
    • RFID cloning method involves copying RFID data to gain unauthorized access. It's not applicable in a scenario where a keypad is being used.

    Tags: Attacking with Brute Force

Question 30

30. Which of the following motivations refers to the act of threatening to expose someone's secrets unless they comply with certain demands?

    Options:

    • Data exfiltration
    • Service disruption
    • Revenge
    • Blackmail

    Overall explanation:

    • Blackmail refers to the act of threatening to expose or harm someone unless they comply with certain demands. Blackmail can be done for financial, personal, or ideological reasons.
    • Service disruption refers to the act of impairing or interrupting the availability or functionality of a system or network. Service disruption can be done as a form of protest, sabotage, or extortion, or to create a diversion.
    • Data exfiltration refers to the act of stealing sensitive or confidential data from a system or network. The data that is stolen can be later used for financial gain, espionage, blackmail, or other purposes.
    • Revenge refers to the act of harming a person or the person's reputation as a result of a perceived wrong or injury. Revenge can be done for personal, emotional, or ideological reasons.

    Tags: Threat Actor Motivations

Question 31

31. What is the term for a type of human vector/social engineering attack that involves pretending to be someone else to gain trust or access?

    Options:

    • Business email compromise
    • Misinformation/disinformation
    • Impersonation
    • Pretexting

    Overall explanation:

    • Impersonation is a type of human vector/social engineering attack that involves pretending to be someone else to gain trust or access. It can be used to deceive users into revealing sensitive information, performing malicious actions, or granting privileges.
    • Pretexting is a type of human vector/social engineering attack that involves creating a false scenario or reason to justify the request or communication. It can be used to deceive users into revealing sensitive information, performing malicious actions, or granting privileges.
    • Misinformation/disinformation is a type of human vector/social engineering attack that involves spreading false or misleading information to influence people’s beliefs or actions. It does not necessarily involve pretending to be someone else.
    • Business email compromise is a type of human vector/social engineering attack that involves compromising an email account of an organization and using it to send fraudulent emails to trick recipients into transferring money or revealing sensitive information. It does not necessarily involve pretending to be someone else.

    Tags: Impersonation

Question 32

32. Which of the following backup methods involves real-time replication of every transaction made within a system?

    Options:

    • Differential Backup
    • Incremental Backup
    • Full Backup
    • Journaling

    Overall explanation:

    • Journaling is a form of backup that involves recording all transactions in a system which can be used to restore the system to a previous state.
    • Incremental backups save only the changes made since the last backup, whether that was a full or another incremental backup. This method doesn't replicate transactions in real-time, but rather at scheduled intervals.
    • A full backup involves making a complete copy of all data in the system. While comprehensive, it's typically scheduled to occur at regular intervals (e.g., nightly or weekly) and does not provide real-time replication of each transaction.
    • Differential backups capture all changes made since the last full backup. Like incremental backups, differential backups are not done in real-time but at specific intervals, and they accumulate changes since the last full backup.

    Tags: Data Backups

Question 33

33. Your company possesses exclusive formulas and business processes that offer a competitive edge. Which of the following strategies would BEST prevent unauthorized dissemination or replication of this crucial information?

    Options:

    • Non-disclosure agreements
    • Open source licensing strategy
    • Use of public cloud storage solutions
    • Deployment of general data encryption

    Overall explanation:

    • Non-disclosure agreements legally binds personnel to confidentiality and secure handling of proprietary data.
    • Open source licensing strategy allows free use, modification, and distribution of a product's design or code.
    • The deployment of general data encryption makes data unreadable but doesn't secure proprietary secrets.
    • The use of public cloud storage solutions provides easy access and sharing but not inherent data security.

    Tags: NDA

Question 34

34. Which statement BEST describes the significance of safeguarding legal information in an organization?

    Options:

    • If legal data leaks it can result in legal liabilities and harm an organization's reputation.
    • Like all other data, legal data is important to organizations and businesses.
    • Legal information is vital during courtroom trials so it must be protected while the trial is occurring.
    • All employees of an organization should access legal data to offer complete transparency.

    Overall explanation:

    • Unauthorized exposure of legal documents can lead to breaches of confidentiality and damage the organization's public image. Unlimited employee access can lead to internal data leaks or misuse.
    • Legal data is crucial for many situations, even outside court disputes. Legal information is not like all other data.  It often has confidentiality clauses that need strict protection.

Question 35

35. Gross Games, a multi-media company, is located in a region prone to natural disasters. Which backup strategy offers the best protection against data loss from catastrophic events?

    Options:

    • Onsite backups
    • Offsite backups
    • Differential backups
    • Data mirroring

    Overall explanation:

    • By storing data in a different geographical location, offsite backups provide an added layer of protection against regional disasters, ensuring data availability even if the primary site is compromised.
    • While differential backups captures only the changes since the last full backup, it doesn't inherently determine the geographical location of the backup storage.
    • Though data mirroring maintains identical data sets in two locations, the effectiveness against disasters depends on the geographic distribution of mirrored sites.
    • While providing swift recovery times, onsite backups in disaster-prone areas risk being affected by the same catastrophic event as the primary data center.

    Tags: Data Backups

Question 36

36. What kind of data typically requires processing by machines and specialized software?

    Options:

    • Segmented
    • Geographically restricted
    • Non-human readable
    • Critical

    Overall explanation:

    • Non-human readable data typically refers to information that requires a machine or specialized software to interpret.
    • Geographic restrictions apply limitations based on data's location. This describes a security method, not the nature of data readability.
    • Being critical, data might have significant importance to the running of a business or organization, but it does not determine whether it's readable by humans.
    • Segmentation is a method of dividing a network into manageable parts. It's not a type of data.

    Tags: Data Types

Question 37

37. An e-commerce company wants to protect its database containing customer names and credit card details when sharing it with its marketing team for analytics purposes. The marketing team doesn't need to view the actual data but requires a dataset of similar structure. Which of the following methods is BEST suited for this scenario?

    Options:

    • Role-based access control (RBAC)
    • Data obfuscation
    • Data encryption
    • Intrusion detection system (IDS)

    Overall explanation:

    • Data obfuscation alters data to make it unreadable but retains its format and structure, ensuring the marketing team can carry out analytics without viewing the actual content.
    • While RBAC restricts access based on user roles, it doesn't change the data itself, allowing those with access to view actual customer details.
    • Though data encryption renders data unreadable to unauthorized users, decrypting it would provide the actual content, which is not desired for the marketing team.
    • An IDS monitors the network for malicious activity but does not alter or protect the content of the data itself.

    Tags: Obfuscation

Question 38

38. Dion Training is implementing a new remote working policy and is considering various connectivity options to ensure secure access to organizational resources. The company realizes that certain security principles may have limitations based on the available connectivity options. In this scenario, which of the following considerations demonstrates a limitation of applying security principles due to the constraints of connectivity options?

    Options:

    • Ensuring end-to-end encryption
    • Implementing multi-factor authentication (MFA)
    • Utilizing network-based intrusion detection systems
    • Relying solely on virtual private networks (VPNs)

    Overall explanation:

    • While VPNs enhance security, relying solely on them can limit connectivity options and might not address all security concerns, especially in diverse and dynamic remote working environments.
    • While critical, some remote connectivity options might not fully support robust end-to-end encryption, potentially leaving data transmissions vulnerable.
    • MFA is a universal security principle and does not typically face limitations based on connectivity options; it adds an extra layer of security regardless of the connection method used.
    • Utilizing network-based intrusion detection systems is essential for monitoring network traffic, but their effectiveness might be limited based on the connectivity options available and the location of the traffic flow, especially for remote workers.

    Tags: Remote Access VPN

Question 39

39. Kelly Financial Solutions processes thousands of credit card transactions daily. To enhance security, the IT department wants to ensure that sensitive data, such as credit card numbers, remains protected even while being actively processed in the system's memory. Which technology would be MOST effective in safeguarding data-in-use in this scenario?

    Options:

    • Full disk encryption (FDE)
    • Homomorphic encryption
    • Virtual private network (VPN)
    • Data loss prevention (DLP)

    Overall explanation:

    • Homomorphic encryption allows data to be processed without being decrypted, effectively securing data-in-use. Computations can be performed on the encrypted data directly, and the results, when decrypted, match as if the operations were done on the plaintext.
    • DLP solutions monitor and control data transfers, helping to prevent data breaches. However, they don't provide specific protection for data being actively processed in memory.
    • While FDE is effective for protecting data at rest, especially on hard drives or SSDs, it doesn't specifically secure data-in-use.
    • A VPN encrypts network traffic between two points, ensuring data-in-transit security. It doesn't focus on safeguarding data actively being processed in a system's memory.

    Tags: Data States

Question 40

40. Kelly Innovations LLC is migrating to IPv6 and looking into improving their network's security. They learned that while IPSec was originally mandatory for IPv6, it has now become only recommended. What significant aspect of Internet Protocol Security would make it especially suitable for securing their entire network traffic, not just specific applications?

    Options:

    • IPSec is exclusive to IPv4.
    • IPSec provides only confidentiality.
    • IPSec operates at the network layer (Layer 3) of the OSI model.
    • IPSec primarily functions at the application layer (Layer 7) of the OSI Model.

    Overall explanation:

    • By operating at the network layer, IPSec offers flexibility since it can secure traffic without needing to configure specific application support. It encompasses both data packet encryption (for confidentiality) and packet signing (for integrity/anti-replay).
    • While TLS operates at the application layer, IPSec functions at the network layer.
    • IPSec was an integral part of IPv6 and remains compatible with it, even though its mandatory use has been revised.
    • While confidentiality is one of the components offered by IPSec (especially with ESP), it also provides integrity and anti-replay features.

    Tags: IPsec

Question 41

41. As part of their expansion, Kelly Innovations LLC decided to break their monolithic application into microservices. While this provides scalability, which of the following security implications should the organization be MOST concerned with?

    Options:

    • Granular access controls requirements.
    • Reduced monitoring endpoints.
    • Singular deployment cadence.
    • Consolidation of data storage.

    Overall explanation:

    • As applications are broken down into microservices, each service might need specific access controls, potentially complicating the permissions landscape.
    • Microservices allow for independent deployments, moving away from a singular deployment cadence which is more associated with monolithic structures.
    • Microservices often distribute data storage needs across services, rather than consolidating them, making this option less relevant.
    • Microservices can actually increase the number of endpoints that need to be monitored, rather than reducing them.

    Tags: Centralized vs Decentralized Architectures

Question 42

42. Robert is setting up access for employees in his organization's new cloud infrastructure. He wants to ensure that even if an attacker steals a user's password, they shouldn't be able to access the system without additional verification. Which of the following controls is the BEST solution for Robert to implement?

    Options:

    • Firewall
    • ACLs
    • MFA
    • SIEM

    Overall explanation:

    • MFA (Multi-factor authentication) mandates users to present two or more verification methods before they can access a resource. This means even if a malicious actor acquires a user's password, they would still need another form of verification, like a token or biometric data, to gain access.
    • SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) platforms aggregate and analyze log and event data to identify and respond to security threats. While they can detect potential security incidents, they do not handle user access verification.
    • Firewalls filter and control traffic entering or leaving a network based on specific rules. They are not designed to authenticate users with multiple verification methods.
    • ACLs (Access control lists) determine which users or roles are allowed access to specific resources. They do not, however, provide multiple layers of verification before allowing access.

    Tags: Multifactor Authentication (MFA)

Question 43

43. Dion Training Solutions is implementing a security system for its research facility where sensitive data is stored. If the access control system fails, which mode should be adopted to ensure that no unauthorized personnel can enter the facility, even if it means some inconvenience to authorized staff?

    Options:

    • Fail-closed
    • Fail-open
    • Rate-based filtering
    • Passive mode

    Overall explanation:

    • When security is paramount, as with sensitive data storage, a fail-closed mode ensures that all access requests are denied during system malfunctions, preventing any potential unauthorized access.
    • A fail-open mode would allow all access requests during a malfunction. In a high-security environment, this could lead to unauthorized access to sensitive data. This method involves limiting traffic based on a predefined rate.
    • In passive mode, the firewall monitors traffic without actively blocking or allowing it. This can be useful for observing traffic patterns but wouldn't be ideal for a mission-critical system where active protection is essential.

    Tags: Infrastructure Considerations

Question 44

44. When Dion Training is considering the deployment of a microservices architecture, which of the following factors is crucial to ensuring that the system can handle growth and increased demand efficiently?

    Options:

    • Scalability
    • Responsiveness
    • Ease of Recovery
    • Containerization

    Overall explanation:

    • Scalability in a microservices architecture is pivotal, as it allows the system to adapt and efficiently handle growth and increased demand, ensuring sustained performance and resource optimization.
    • Ease of recovery is vital for system resilience, but it doesn’t directly address the architecture's capacity to handle increased load or demand.
    • Containerization is a method used in deploying applications in a microservices architecture but doesn’t directly measure the system’s adaptability to growth.
    • While responsiveness is crucial for user experience, it doesn’t directly measure the system’s ability to adapt to growth and increased demand.

    Tags: On-premise versus the Cloud

Question 45

45. Lullaby Animations' website has many features including a blog, store, video streaming, and beta and feedback pages. The site uses a number of servers to provide fault tolerance. Each feature is housed on a particular server so that if one server goes down, they only lose functionality for one part of the site. The rest of the site remains up. What best describes the system Lullaby Animations uses?

    Options:

    • Parallel processing
    • Hot site
    • Load balancing
    • Clustering

    Overall explanation:

    • Clustering involves combining a number of servers into one node. Different servers can be assigned different tasks to provide greater fault tolerance. For example, each server can handle one part of a complex website. If one server goes down, the task that the server performs may be unavailable, but the rest of the website will still function.
    • Parallel processing involves using multiple CPUs to process different parts of a bigger task. It requires the task to be broken into separate parts. The benefits of parallel processing include greater speed and greater fault tolerance. In addition, it can be cheaper because using several lower performance CPUs may mean that an expensive, higher performance CPU isn’t needed.
    • Load balancing distributes network or application traffic across many servers. This optimizes the use of resources, maximizes throughput, and reduces latency. In load balancing, the servers are all performing the same duty, they aren't set up to each handle a particular task.
    • Hot sites are ready for immediate use. They are usually owned by the organization and have a complete set of equipment; So that transition can be immediate, devices and data at the hot site may be continuously updated. Hot sites don't involve division of tasks among servers.

    Tags: High Availability

Question 46

46. Which of the following BEST describes the proactive approach to ensure that an organization's IT infrastructure can meet future workload demands by analyzing current capabilities?

    Options:

    • Infrastructure hardening
    • Performance tuning
    • Capacity planning
    • Redundancy implementation

    Overall explanation:

    • Analyzing current capabilities of IT infrastructure and forecasting future needs is the essence of capacity planning. It determines when and where additional resources will be required to address future growth.
    • Performance tuning optimizes the performance of a system. While it can increase the efficiency of current resources, it doesn't inherently focus on forecasting or analyzing future infrastructure needs.
    • Infrastructure hardening refers to security measures and practices applied to protect IT infrastructure from threats, but doesn't involve forecasting future resource needs.
    • While redundancy implementation ensures that there's a backup in place in case of system failures, redundancy doesn't focus on analyzing current capabilities against future workload demands.

Question 47

47. In an environment utilizing Industrial Control Systems (ICS), which of the following aspects is critical to assess, given that certain components might not allow modifications for security improvements?

    Options:

    • Ease of Deployment
    • Risk Transference
    • Ease of Recovery
    • Inability to Patch

    Overall explanation:

    • In Industrial Control Systems (ICS), the inability to patch is a significant concern due to several inherent challenges. Many ICS components are designed to be immutable for stability in critical processes, rendering modifications or updates impossible. Additionally, these systems often rely on continuous operation and use proprietary, sometimes legacy, components, making downtime for updates impractical and vendor-dependent patch availability challenging. This inability to apply timely security updates leaves ICS environments vulnerable to known exploits, potentially compromising system integrity, safety, and production.
    • Ease of Recovery considers how easily a system can be put back online after failure. While older components might impact the ease of recovery, it will probably not be the result of not allowing modification. The inability to patch will directly impact the security of the system.
    • Risk transference refers to the sharing or moving of risk to another party. Having older components in a system may create a need for risk transference, but risk transference is a solution to a security concern, not a factor that should be addressed.
    • The Inability to Patch is a security risk that needs to be considered and addressed when using older components. Ease of Deployment refers to how easy it is to install and implement a system. This may be affected by older components, it isn't a security concern.

    Tags: ICS and SCADA

Question 48

48. In a large organization dealing with sensitive data, the security team wants a way to provide temporary access credentials to privileged users, such as system administrators. This access should be granted for a short duration and should automatically expire after its intended use. Which method should the organization use for this requirement?

    Options:

    • Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)
    • Password vaulting
    • Ephemeral credentials
    • Static access tokens

    Overall explanation:

    • Ephemeral credentials are temporary and are typically generated on-the-fly for a specific purpose, reducing the risk of credential misuse or compromise.
    • Static access tokens are persistent and do not change unless manually revoked or reset, making them more susceptible to compromise if not properly managed.
    • Password vaulting involves storing passwords securely, usually with encryption, and doesn't directly provide time-bound access.
    • While PKI provides a framework for secure communications and digital signatures, it does not inherently offer temporary or short-lived credentials.

    Tags: Encrypted Traffic Insights

Question 49

49. A company's web application allows users to search for products using a search bar. The search query is then used in a SQL query to fetch relevant products from the database. Additionally, the web application allows users to leave comments on product pages. The comments are displayed on the website without any restrictions. The company's security team is concerned about the risk of SQL injection and XSS attacks. Which of the following security techniques should be applied to address these concerns effectively?

    Options:

    • Enabling HTTPS on the web server to secure data transmission
    • Validating and sanitizing user input for both search and comments
    • Implementing a web application firewall (WAF) to monitor traffic
    • Limiting user access to product pages using strong authentication

    Overall explanation:

    • Validating and sanitizing user input for both search queries and comments is a crucial security technique to prevent SQL injection (SQLi) and cross-site scripting (XSS) attacks. For SQLi protection, input validation ensures that user-supplied search queries do not include malicious SQL commands that could manipulate the database or expose sensitive information. For XSS protection, sanitization ensures that user-provided comments do not contain malicious scripts that could be executed on other users' browsers, potentially stealing sensitive information or performing unauthorized actions.
    • Implementing a web application firewall (WAF) is a valuable security measure to monitor and filter incoming and outgoing traffic to identify and block potential attacks. However, while a WAF can help in detecting and blocking certain types of attacks, it is not a substitute for proper input validation and sanitization. The best practice is to implement both a WAF and input validation/sanitization techniques for comprehensive security.
    • While enabling HTTPS is essential for securing data transmission between the web server and the clients, it does not directly address the concerns of SQL injection and cross-site scripting. HTTPS encrypts data during transmission, but it does not protect against attacks that exploit improper handling of user input in the application.

    Tags: SQL and XML Injections

Question 50

50. Kelly Financial Services has been experiencing unauthorized access to its databases during non-business hours. They want to implement a control that only allows access to critical systems between 8:00 AM to 6:00 PM, Monday to Friday, to reduce the chances of unauthorized or malicious activity. Which of the following security measures can BEST address this concern?

    Options:

    • Intrusion detection system (IDS)
    • Implementing time-of-day restrictions
    • Mandating multifactor authentication
    • Implementing data masking protocols

    Overall explanation:

    • Implementing time-of-day restrictions ensures that access to systems or resources is only available during specified times, mitigating risks associated with unauthorized access attempts during off-hours.
    • Implementing data masking protocols protects sensitive data by replacing, encrypting, or scrambling original data to protect it from unauthorized access.
    • An IDS monitors and analyzes network traffic for signs of malicious activity or policy violations.
    • Mandating multifactor authentication requires two or more verification methods - something you know, something you have, or something you are.

    Tags: Access Control Models

Question 51

51. Which of the following statements BEST explains the importance of considering single points of failure?

    Options:

    • Identifying single points of failure helps in centralizing control of security systems for better orchestration.
    • Addressing single points of failure ensures that automated security processes do not replace human decision-making.
    • Mitigating single points of failure is crucial to maintain the availability and reliability of automated security operations.
    • Single points of failure represent an entry point into a system so being aware of them will prevent more failures throughout the system.

    Overall explanation:

    • Single points of failure can lead to system outages and compromise the availability and reliability of automated security operations. By identifying and mitigating these single points of failure, organizations can enhance the resilience of their automated systems, ensuring continuous and reliable security operations.
    • The concept of single points of failure is about identifying critical components or processes that, if disrupted, can cause the entire system to fail. It is not about centralizing control for better orchestration.
    • Single points of failure are vulnerabilities that can disrupt the entire system if they fail, and their existence has nothing to do with whether human decision-making is replaced or not.
    • Single points of failure can exist in both traditional and automated security models. They are a concern in any system where the failure of a critical component could lead to widespread disruption or compromise.

    Tags: High Availability

Question 52

52. Which monitoring technology would be the MOST suitable to gain a comprehensive overview of the health and security status of foundational IT components, including network traffic and interactions between servers?

    Options:

    • Vulnerability scanners
    • Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) traps
    • Log aggregation tools
    • Network intrusion detection system (NIDS)

    Overall explanation:

    • NIDS specializes in monitoring network traffic, analyzing it for signs of security breaches or policy violations, making it the ideal choice for infrastructure monitoring.
    • These tools search for known vulnerabilities within systems or applications, but they don't provide continuous monitoring of network interactions.
    • While SNMP traps can alert administrators to specific events or problems, they don't provide a holistic view of network health like NIDS.
    • Log aggregation tools collect and manage logs, but they don't provide real-time monitoring of network traffic like NIDS.

    Tags: Alerting and Monitoring Activities

Question 53

53. You are a cybersecurity analyst for a large organization that collaborates with several external partners, each having their own user authentication systems. The organization wants to simplify the user login experience for both internal employees and external partners while maintaining a centralized identity management system. As a cybersecurity analyst, you recommend implementing a federation solution for this purpose. Which of the following approaches would be the most effective way to implement federation in the given scenario?

    Options:

    • Use a protocol, such as Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML), to facilitate the exchange of identity information among organizations.
    • Restricting access to internal applications and resources solely based on the user's physical location or group identity.
    • Creating separate user accounts for external partners within the organization's identity management system.
    • Sharing internal employee credentials with external partners to create more efficient access to all systems.

    Overall explanation:

    • Implementing a federation protocol, such as Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML), is the most effective approach for achieving a seamless user login experience for both internal employees and external partners. SAML allows for the secure exchange of authentication and authorization data between different organizations, enabling users to log in using their own organization's credentials while accessing resources and applications from other federated organizations without the need for separate accounts. It simplifies identity management and enhances user experience while maintaining centralized control.
    • Creating separate user accounts for external partners within the organization's identity management system would result in a complex and difficult-to-maintain system. It would require managing multiple accounts for the same users, leading to duplication of effort and potential inconsistencies in access permissions. Federation is designed to avoid such complexities by enabling the secure exchange of identity information without the need for additional user accounts.
    • Restricting access based on the user's physical location is a form of access control, but it does not address the scenario's requirement of simplifying user logins for both internal employees and external partners while maintaining centralized identity management.
    • Sharing internal employee credentials with external partners poses significant security risks and violates the principle of least privilege. It also exposes the organization to potential unauthorized access and data breaches.

    Tags: Federation

Question 54

54. In a small startup company, the access control mechanism allows individual users to have control over the access permissions of their files, folders, and resources. Each user can set access rights and determine who has access to their resources based on their own judgment. Which type of access control mechanism is being used in this scenario?

    Options:

    • Rule-based
    • Mandatory
    • Discretionary
    • Role-Based

    Overall explanation:

    • In the scenario described, the access control mechanism used in the small startup company is "Discretionary access control" (DAC). In a DAC system, owners of resources have discretion or control over the access permissions of their files, folders, and resources. Each user can set access rights and determine who has access to their resources based on their own judgment. DAC allows users to have flexibility and autonomy in managing access, making it suitable for smaller organizations where users may need to tailor access rights to their specific needs.
    • "Mandatory access control" (MAC) is a mechanism where access to resources is strictly enforced based on predefined rules and regulations, often determined by security labels or classifications. Users and administrators do not have discretion to modify or override the access control policies in a MAC system. In the scenario, the access control mechanism is described as allowing users to have control over their own resources, which is not characteristic of a MAC system.
    • "Role-Based access control" (RBAC) is a mechanism where access to resources is determined based on the roles or job functions of users. Users are assigned specific roles, and access permissions are associated with those roles. However, in the scenario, the access control mechanism is described as being based on the individual users' control rather than their roles.
    • "Rule-based access control" is a broad term that can encompass various access control mechanisms. While the scenario does mention individual users setting access rights.

    Tags: Access Control Models

Question 55

55. As a security analyst, you are analyzing network logs to assist in your investigation of a suspected cyberattack. Which of the following pieces of information is NOT typically documented in the network log data?

    Options:

    • Timestamp of the network traffic
    • Source IP and port
    • Content of encrypted data packets
    • Destination IP and port

    Overall explanation:

    • Network logs do NOT, as a standard, reveal the content of encrypted data packets. Encryption secures the content of the data traffic, rendering it unreadable without the correct decryption keys.
    • It's important to note that decryption for inspection purposes may have legal implications and should adhere to organizational policies and compliance rules. Network logs typically contain timestamps for all network traffic. This allows for a timeline to be constructed when investigating incidents, helping to identify patterns and link related events.
    • Destination IP and port are critical pieces of network log data. Among other things, they can reveal the target of specific network traffic, which is useful for identifying potential threats or intrusions.
    • Source IP and port comprise crucial parts of network log data. They help determine the origin of the traffic, which can be particularly helpful when investigating security incidents.

Question 56

56. Which of the following is an aspect of asset management that ensures that each IT asset is clearly associated with a specific individual or department, providing clarity on responsibilities and access rights?

    Options:

    • Acquisition
    • Ownership
    • Monitoring
    • Decommissioning

    Overall explanation:

    • Ownership helps in determining who is responsible for the asset, ensuring clear lines of accountability and often helping in deciding the access rights.
    • Decommissioning pertains to the process of retiring assets and doesn't directly associate assets with specific entities.
    • Acquisition refers to the process of obtaining assets, not the association of assets with individuals or departments.
    • Monitoring involves keeping an eye on the performance and status of assets, rather than establishing responsibility.

    Tags: Asset Management

Question 57

57. Which of the following BEST describes the initial step to ensure a secure procurement process at Dion Training?

    Options:

    • Check for discounts or bulk pricing.
    • Determine the software's compatibility with existing systems.
    • Collaborate with the IT department for installation.
    • Verify the legitimacy of the software vendor.

    Overall explanation:

    • Before making any purchases, it's essential to ensure the vendor is reputable to avoid acquiring counterfeit or malicious software.
    • Financial considerations, while valid, come after ensuring security.
    • While collaboration is crucial, the first step should be to ensure the vendor's legitimacy.
    • Compatibility is important, but first, you need to ensure you're buying from a reputable source.

    Tags: Acquisition and Procurement

Question 58

58. Which of the following BEST describes a method that assesses software in its running state, often evaluating it for potential vulnerabilities or flaws during real-time operations?

    Options:

    • Package monitoring
    • Dynamic analysis
    • Static analysis
    • Threat feed

    Overall explanation:

    • Dynamic analysis evaluates software during its runtime, aiming to uncover vulnerabilities that might not be visible in a static state.
    • Package monitoring involves watching for updates or changes in software packages to ensure they remain secure and free of vulnerabilities.
    • Static analysis examines the codebase without executing the program, looking for potential vulnerabilities at the source level.
    • A threat feed is a continuous stream of information regarding potential threats, often used to update and inform security measures.

    Tags: Identifying Vulnerabilities

Question 59

59. Which of the following statements BEST explains the importance and security implications of ownership concerning hardware, software, and data asset management?

    Options:

    • Ownership establishes accountability, reducing insider threat risks.
    • Ownership ensures easy asset identification during audits and reduces unauthorized access risk.
    • Ownership facilitates physical security by determining asset location, preventing theft.
    • Ownership documentation aids in budget allocation for security measures.

    Overall explanation:

    • Assigning ownership to specific individuals or departments is of utmost importance in the accounting process of hardware, software, and data assets. This ensures accountability for the security and appropriate use of assets, reducing the risk of insider threats. When specific individuals are responsible for assets, they are more likely to take security measures seriously and follow proper protocols.
    • Although ownership documentation is crucial for financial tracking and budget allocation, it does not primarily relate to the security implications of asset management. Financial tracking is necessary for budgeting but doesn't directly address security considerations.
    • While proper labeling and tagging of assets are essential for asset management, it does not directly address the security implications of ownership in the accounting process. Asset identification aids in inventory management but does not significantly impact security concerns.
    • While determining the physical location of assets is part of asset management, it does not solely pertain to the importance of ownership in the accounting process. Physical security considerations are relevant but not the primary focus of ownership in the context of asset management and security implications.

    Tags: Data Ownership

Question 60

60. Which of the following statements BEST explains the importance of penetration testing in the context of vulnerability management?

    Options:

    • Penetration testing focuses on creating backups of critical data and testing data restoration procedures to ensure business continuity.
    • Penetration testing includes conducting simulated cyberattacks on systems and applications to identify and address security vulnerabilities.
    • Penetration testing refers to the process of installing security patches and updates to protect against known vulnerabilities.
    • Penetration testing involves monitoring network traffic to detect and prevent potential intrusions by unauthorized users.

    Overall explanation:

    • Penetration testing involves simulating cyberattacks on systems and applications to identify security weaknesses and vulnerabilities. By performing these simulated attacks, organizations can proactively address potential threats and strengthen their security posture.
    • While data backups and testing data restoration procedures are essential for business continuity, they are not the main components of penetration testing.
    • While monitoring network traffic is a valid security practice, penetration testing specifically involves conducting simulated cyberattacks to identify vulnerabilities.
    • While installing security patches and updates is important for vulnerability management, it is not the primary focus of penetration testing.

    Tags: Pentesting

Question 61

61. Which of the following statements BEST explains the importance of automating user provisioning?

    Options:

    • It reduces the system's overall security.
    • It ensures timely access to resources and enhances productivity.
    • It replaces the need for any form of user authentication.
    • It always eliminates the need for human intervention in any IT process.

    Overall explanation:

    • Automated user provisioning helps in granting immediate access rights, reducing waiting times and hence improving productivity.
    • Automated user provisioning, when done correctly, actually enhances security by ensuring standardized and consistent provisioning processes.
    • While automation can help in provisioning, authentication remains a separate and crucial component of system security.
    • While automation reduces human intervention, oversight and management are still needed, especially for exceptions and audits.

    Tags: Automating Onboarding

Question 62

62. Holi, a small batch yarn producer, is growing. They recently made their first international sale. Holly realizes as their web presence grows, they need to be more aware of security concerns. She has hired Hani to set up a system that will collect and analyze data about the security of Holi's network. It will detect and respond to any incidents or anomalies that may occur. Which of the following security techniques will Hani be in charge of?

    Options:

    • Monitoring
    • Auditing
    • Logging
    • Patching

    Overall explanation:

    • Monitoring is a technique that involves continuously observing and measuring the status and activity of the network and systems, using tools such as network analyzers, performance monitors, or intrusion detection systems. Monitoring can provide real-time data and alerts about the performance, availability, and security of the network and systems, and enable the company to detect and respond to any incidents or anomalies that may occur.
    • Logging is a technique that involves recording and storing the events and actions that occur on the network and systems, using tools such as event logs, syslog servers, or security information and event management (SIEM) systems. Logging can provide forensic data and evidence about the events and actions that occur on the network and systems, and enable the company to investigate and analyze any incidents or anomalies that may occur. Logging is done by machines and tracks everything that the computer does. Logs can be used by monitoring systems that will detect and respond to the security incidents, but logs don't actually do the detecting and responding.
    • Patching is a technique that involves updating and fixing the software and firmware on the network and systems, using tools such as patch management systems, update servers, or configuration management systems. Patching can provide security and functionality improvements for the network and systems, and enable the company to prevent or mitigate any vulnerabilities or exploits. It would be good for Hani to also supervise the patching of systems, but this isn't indicated in the scenario.
    • Auditing is a technique that involves periodically reviewing and verifying the compliance and effectiveness of the network and systems, using tools such as vulnerability scanners, penetration testers, or audit reports. Auditing can provide historical data and recommendations about the compliance and effectiveness of the network and systems, and enable the company to identify and remediate any gaps or weaknesses. Auditing is for compliance, while monitoring is for detecting and responding to security incidents.

    Tags: Monitoring Resources

Question 63

63. Enrique, a network administrator at Kelly Innovations LLC, is discussing with Reed strategies to further secure the organization's routers. Which of the following would be the BEST approach to ensure router security?

    Options:

    • Enable Telnet for remote management.
    • Frequently change router IP addresses to avoid detection.
    • Enable SNMPv1 for backward compatibility.
    • Implement access control lists (ACLs) to filter traffic.

    Overall explanation:

    • ACLs are used to define and control the traffic allowed into and out of a network, thereby enhancing the security of the router by specifying which traffic is to be allowed or denied.
    • Telnet transmits data, including credentials, in plaintext, making it vulnerable to eavesdropping compared to more secure alternatives like SSH.
    • Regularly changing IP addresses might complicate tracking for attackers but also adds complexity for administration and isn't as effective as using ACLs to manage traffic.
    • SNMPv1, while providing compatibility, lacks encryption and uses community strings that can be easily compromised compared to its successors.

    Tags: Access Control Lists (ACLs)

Question 64

64. You were recently hired by a large software company that specializes in developing mobile applications. Before getting assigned any tasks, the company gives you a username and password to log into the system. Which type of multi-factor authentication (MFA) factor is being used?

    Options:

    • Somewhere you are.
    • Something you have.
    • Something you know.
    • Something you are.

    Overall explanation:

    • When an employee provides a username and password to log in, they are using the "Something you know" factor of multi-factor authentication (MFA). In this context, the knowledge of a specific piece of information (the password) is the factor used for authentication. This is the most common form of authentication and is typically the first factor used in multi-factor authentication processes.
    • Location-based authentication is a type of contextual authentication that considers the user's geographic location as an additional factor, but it is not represented by the answer choice "Somewhere you are." In this scenario, the employee is using a password for authentication.
    • "Something you are" refers to biometric authentication factors, such as fingerprint, facial recognition, or iris scan. In this scenario, the employee is not using any biometric data for authentication; they are using a password.
    • "Something you have" refers to authentication factors that involve physical objects or tokens, such as a smart card, security token, or mobile device. In this scenario, the employee is not using a physical object or token; they are using a password.

    Tags: Multifactor Authentication (MFA)

Question 65

65. After resolving reported SQL injection vulnerabilities in their database, Dion Training wishes to confirm that these specific weaknesses have indeed been patched. Which action is MOST appropriate for this purpose?

    Options:

    • Reviewing the latest patch notes for the database software.
    • Setting up additional firewall rules around the database.
    • Monitoring real-time database access logs for suspicious activities.
    • Re-executing vulnerability scans on affected database endpoints.

    Overall explanation:

    • Re-scanning previously vulnerable endpoints is the direct approach to confirm if SQL injection flaws have been addressed.
    • While enhancing protection, setting up additional firewall rules around the database doesn't provide direct confirmation that SQL injection vulnerabilities are fixed.
    • While patch notes give an overview of updates, they do not directly validate the resolution of specific vulnerabilities.
    • Real-time monitoring is about detecting ongoing threats, not confirming the resolution of a specific vulnerability.

    Tags: Vulnerability Scans

Question 66

66. Which of the following terms refers to a scenario where a potentially harmful or malicious event goes undetected by a system or tool, resulting in no alert or action being taken?

    Options:

    • False negative
    • Threat feed
    • False positive
    • Open-source intelligence (OSINT)

    Overall explanation:

    • A false negative arises when a security system fails to detect a genuine threat or malicious action, allowing potentially harmful activities to continue without intervention.
    • A false positive occurs when a security measure mistakenly identifies a legitimate action as malicious or a threat, potentially leading to unnecessary corrective actions or alerts.
    • A threat feed provides a continuous stream of data regarding potential threats, used to enhance and inform cybersecurity measures.
    • Leveraging publicly available data sources to gather information about targets, Open-source intelligence (OSINT) provides insights without violating any laws.

    Tags: Analyzing Vulnerabilities

Question 67

67. A company allows its employees to use their personal mobile devices for work-related tasks, such as accessing company email and sensitive documents. The IT department is concerned about the security risks to company data when these devices are lost. Which of the following aspects of an MDM will address this concern effectively?

    Options:

    • Requiring employees to use strong passwords for their personal email accounts
    • Enforcing full device encryption on all employee mobile devices
    • Installing anti-virus software on the company's network servers
    • Enabling remote wiping of devices

    Overall explanation:

    • Enabling the MDM's ability to conduct a remote wipe of the device is the best solution to the issue of a lost or stolen device.
    • Although full encryption may slow down a determined thief who has access to the device, it will not guarantee that the data is not decrypted. A remote wipe of the data will restore the device to factory settings and prevent the data from being accessed. It is the best MDM feature to protect the data if the device is lost.
    • Requiring employees to use strong passwords for their personal email accounts is a good practice for improving security. However, given time, even a strong password can be cracked. This measure focuses on the security of personal email accounts, but it does not ensure the protection of work-related data and access on the devices.
    • Enforcing full device encryption on all employee mobile devices is a critical security technique for mobile device management. Encryption protects data stored on the devices, making it unreadable without the proper decryption key. In a scenario if someone finds the device and is determined to crack the password, they will be able to decrypt the data.
    • While installing anti-virus software on network servers is essential for protecting against malware and other threats, it is not directly related to mobile device management. This option focuses on server protection rather than addressing the security concerns related to personal mobile devices used for work.

    Tags: Asset Management

Question 68

68. You are a cybersecurity consultant working with a large enterprise that handles sensitive customer data and financial information. The organization is concerned about detecting unauthorized changes to critical files on their servers and workstations. As a security expert, you recommend implementing a File Integrity Monitoring (FIM) solution. Which of the following approaches would be the MOST effective way to implement File Integrity Monitoring (FIM) for the given scenario?

    Options:

    • Limiting the scope of FIM to monitor only system files and directories on the servers and workstations.
    • Scheduling FIM to perform file integrity checks during peak business hours to minimize resource utilization.
    • Implementing FIM on a single server to monitor critical files and directories for the entire enterprise.
    • Configuring the FIM tool to generate real-time alerts for all file changes without any exceptions.

    Overall explanation:

    • Scheduling FIM to perform file integrity checks during peak business hours can help optimize resource utilization. During peak hours, there is likely to be higher user activity and file access, which can potentially mask unauthorized file changes or slow down the FIM process. By scheduling checks during peak hours, the FIM solution can focus on detecting changes when user activity is relatively low, reducing the risk of missing important security events.
    • While monitoring system files and directories is essential, a robust FIM solution should also cover critical application files and sensitive data stored outside the system directories. Attackers might target specific application files or user data, and without monitoring these, the FIM solution would miss important security events.
    • Relying on a single server to perform File Integrity Monitoring for the entire enterprise is not recommended. It may create a single point of failure and limit the scalability and performance of the FIM solution. In a large enterprise, it's better to distribute FIM capabilities across multiple servers or appliances for better redundancy and efficiency.
    • While real-time alerts for all file changes may seem comprehensive, it can lead to an overwhelming number of alerts, especially in large enterprises with a significant number of files. It can be challenging for security teams to differentiate between legitimate changes and potentially malicious ones, making the FIM solution less efficient in identifying actual security incidents.

    Tags: Endpoint Detection and Response

Question 69

69. Jamario, a network technician at Kelly Innovations LLC, is setting up a new server. He wants to ensure that users can access unencrypted web pages on the server and transfer files to and from it. Jamario should ensure which of the following ports are open? (Select TWO.)

    Options:

    • 80 (HTTP)
    • 21 (FTP)
    • 22 (SSH)
    • 443 (HTTPS)
    • 25 (SMTP)

    Overall explanation:

    • Port 80 is the standard port for serving HTTP web pages. Opening this port allows users to access web pages on the server using their browsers.
    • Port 21 is used for the File Transfer Protocol (FTP). Opening this port will allow users to transfer files to and from the server.
    • Though port 22 is essential for secure shell (SSH) access, Jamario's scenario does not mention the need for remote secure access to the server. Thus, it's not a required port for the specified tasks.
    • Port 25 is used for the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP). This would be necessary if users are to send emails through the server.
    • While port 443 is used for serving secure web pages over HTTPS, Jamario's scenario does not specify the need for HTTPS. Therefore, it's not essential for the tasks mentioned.

    Tags: Ports and Protocols

Question 70

70. Jason and Reed, both IT specialists at Kelly Innovations LLC, are tasked with ensuring the workstations' secure baseline remains uncompromised over time. Which technique would BEST help them achieve this?

    Options:

    • Rely solely on antivirus scans to detect changes in workstation configuration.
    • Manually check each workstation at month-end for deviations from the baseline.
    • Implement Ansible to enforce and verify settings.
    • Use Windows Update without a validation process.

    Overall explanation:

    • Implementing Ansible to enforce and verify settings enforce desired configurations and can quickly bring non-compliant systems back to the desired state.
    • Antivirus scans are essential but don't specifically focus on ensuring baseline configurations remain consistent.
    • Manually check each workstation at month-end for deviations from the baseline is labor-intensive and might miss immediate vulnerabilities.
    • While updates are crucial, deploying updates without validation could introduce incompatibilities or unforeseen issues.

    Tags: Automation and Orchestration

Question 71

71. Which of the following best explains the importance of Insurance in vulnerability management?

    Options:

    • Insurance can provide financial support in mitigating the aftermath of a security breach.
    • Insurance has no impact on vulnerability response and remediation processes.
    • Insurance determines the lifespan of hardware or software assets.
    • Insurance affects the actual security measures implemented to prevent vulnerabilities.

    Overall explanation:

    • Cybersecurity insurance helps an organization cover the recovery expenses after a security breach, including legal fees, notification costs, fines, settlements, and many other unforeseen costs related to the incident.
    • While insurance companies may give guidelines or requirements for achieving certain security standards, they do not dictate the actual security measures implemented by a company.
    • Insurance does impact the vulnerability response and remediation processes, not directly by preventing or addressing vulnerabilities but by providing financial aid in the aftermath of a security breach.
    • Insurance does not directly determine the lifespan of hardware or software assets. It might provide financial aid in case of asset loss due to a security incident, but it does not influence the actual longevity of the assets.

    Tags: Vulnerability Response and Remediations

Question 72

72. In digital forensics, which of the following MOST describes why the acquisition process is of utmost importance?

    Options:

    • It grants forensic investigators immediate access to a crime scene.
    • It ensures a precise and unaltered copy of digital evidence is obtained.
    • It determines the relevance of the evidence to the case.
    • It provides a platform for communication between IT and legal teams.

    Overall explanation:

    • Acquiring evidence correctly guarantees the evidence remains unchanged, making it admissible and valuable in legal proceedings.
    • Access might be necessary, but the acquisition phase is more about copying evidence without altering it.
    • Acquisition is about collecting evidence accurately, not determining its relevance to a particular case.
    • While communication is key in forensics, the acquisition specifically deals with collecting evidence in its pristine form.

    Tags: Digital Forensic Procedures

Question 73

73. What part of a business process analysis (BPA) for mission essential functions provides a detailed, step-by-step description of the procedural tasks performed?

    Options:

    • Hardware
    • Inputs
    • Outputs
    • Process flow

    Overall explanation:

    • In a BPA, process flow details each operational step, describing how the mission essential function is systematically executed.
    • While inputs are crucial for starting the process, they do not constitute the sequential operational guide that is the process flow.
    • Outputs relate to the final products or data produced by the function, which is the result of the process flow but not the description of the steps themselves.
    • Hardware identifies the physical infrastructure used in the process, not the step-by-step procedural narrative.

    Tags: Contracts and Agreements

Question 74

74. Which set of standards and guidelines is developed by NIST and specifies requirements for cryptographic modules used within federal computer systems in the United States?

    Options:

    • ISO/IEC 27001
    • NIST Special Publication 800-63
    • FIPS
    • PCI DSS

    Overall explanation:

    • FIPS (Federal Information Processing Standards) are standards that provide important guidelines and requirements for cryptography used to secure federal information systems, except those related to national security.
    • While ISO/IEC 27001 is an important standard for information security management systems, it does not set specific requirements for cryptographic modules within federal computer systems.
    • PCI DSS relates to the protection of cardholder data and is not focused on the cryptographic requirements for federal information systems.
    • NIST Special Publication 800-63, this publication provides guidelines for digital identity but does not specify requirements for cryptographic modules within federal systems.

    Tags: Standards

Question 75

75. A business has determined that a potential data breach could lead to a loss of $300,000. If the organization experiences such breaches twice every ten years, what is the Annual Loss Expectancy (ALE) for this risk?

    Options:

    • $600,000
    • $3,000
    • $60,000
    • $30,000

    Overall explanation:

    • The correct answer is found by multiplying the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) by the Annual Rate of Occurrence (ARO). Since the loss is $300,000 and it occurs twice every ten years, the ARO is 0.2 (twice every ten years is the same as once every five years, or 0.2 times per year). Therefore, $300,000 (SLE) times 0.2 (ARO) equals $60,000, which is the Annual Loss Expectancy (ALE).
    • $60,000 is not correct.
    • $600,000 is not correct.
    • $3,000 is not correct.

    Tags: Quantitative Risk Analysis

Question 76

76. Which of the following procedures outlines the steps for controlling alterations to IT systems within an organization?

    Options:

    • Onboarding/offboarding procedure
    • Incident response procedure
    • Change management procedure
    • Playbooks procedure

    Overall explanation:

    • The change management procedure outlines the steps and guidelines for managing changes to IT systems within an organization. It includes processes for requesting, evaluating, approving, implementing, and reviewing changes to minimize the risk of disruptions and ensure that changes are carried out in a controlled and coordinated manner.
    • The onboarding/offboarding procedure involves the processes and tasks related to welcoming new employees (onboarding) and handling the departure of employees (offboarding) within an organization. While important for managing personnel transitions, it is not directly related to changes in IT systems.
    • The incident response procedure defines the steps for detecting, analyzing, responding to, and recovering from cybersecurity incidents and data breaches. While essential for handling security incidents, it is not directly related to managing changes to IT systems.
    • Playbooks are comprehensive sets of instructions that outline predefined responses to specific situations or events. They are often used in incident response and cybersecurity for guiding actions during security incidents. While valuable for incident management, playbooks are not specifically related to managing changes in IT systems.

    Tags: Change Management

Question 77

77. Which of the following terms refers to entities that establish and enforce security standards, regulations, and guidelines across specific sectors such as finance and healthcare?

    Options:

    • Intelligence agencies
    • Data protection authorities
    • Regulatory agencies
    • Law enforcement agencies

    Overall explanation:

    • Regulatory agencies have the authority to create and enforce rules and standards that organizations in various sectors must follow to ensure security and compliance.
    • Intelligence agencies collect and analyze information related to national security but do not establish security standards for industries.
    • Law enforcement agencies enforce laws and investigate crimes but do not typically set industry standards.
    • While data protection authorities enforce regulations around personal data, they do not broadly set security standards across multiple sectors.

    Tags: Federal Bureaucracy

Question 78

78. Which of the following terms BEST describes the measurement used to describe a 7% possibility of hardware failure in the next year based on past statistical data?

    Options:

    • Likelihood
    • Exposure factor
    • Severity ranking
    • Probability

    Overall explanation:

    • Probability is a quantitative measure, usually expressed as a number between 0 and 1, or as a percentage, indicating the statistical likelihood of a risk event.
    • Likelihood is used in qualitative risk analysis to subjectively describe how probable a risk event is, often expressed in terms such as "low," "medium," or "high."
    • Severity ranking may determine how serious an impact might be but does not directly relate to the probability of an event occurring.
    • The exposure factor (EF) is the fraction of the asset value that is at risk in the event of a security incident.

    Tags: Qualitative Risk Analysis

Question 79

79. When considering user interactions with a web service, which of the following are the security measures that involve the secure creation and transfer of identifiers as well as enforcing inactivity limits to prevent unauthorized access?

    Options:

    • Timeout policies
    • Session management
    • Session cookies
    • Token handling

    Overall explanation:

    • These refer to the protocols that maintain the security of user interactions on the web, including the secure creation and transfer of unique identifiers or "cookies," and setting inactivity limits to automatically terminate the session if the user is inactive for a certain period.
    • Timeout policies contribute to these practices by defining when an inactive session should end, but they do not include the secure transmission and generation of identifiers.
    • While session cookies are a part of what is managed, this term alone does not encompass the full scope of practices like setting inactivity limits.
    • Token handling involves managing security tokens within a system, but on its own, it doesn't cover all aspects of what is required to maintain the security of user interactions, including setting inactivity limits.

    Tags: XSS and XSRF

Question 80

80. In risk analysis, which method involves assigning numerical values to risks based on financial figures, such as costs or potential losses?

    Options:

    • Quantitative risk analysis
    • Qualitative risk analysis
    • Annualized loss expectancy
    • Risk Matrix

    Overall explanation:

    • In risk analysis, the quantitative method involves assigning numerical values to risks based on financial figures, such as costs or potential losses. This approach helps in assessing risks in monetary terms, making it easier to prioritize and compare risks based on their potential impact on the organization's financials.
    • A risk matrix uses the likelihood of an event and the event’s impact on the project, stakeholders, or workflow to create a visual representation of the current risk posture or environment.
    • Costs or potential losses are only one part of the matrix. The annualized loss expectancy (ALE) is a quantitative metric that calculates the expected financial loss from a risk over a year. It is derived from the product of the single loss expectancy (SLE) and the annualized rate of occurrence (ARO).
    • The qualitative risk analysis involves assigning subjective values to risks based on descriptive terms like "high," "medium," or "low." This method does not use numerical values but rather qualitative assessments.

    Tags: Quantitative Risk Analysis

Question 81

81. Which of the following statements BEST describes the role of a data processor in data governance?

    Options:

    • Assesses and manages risks related to data security and compliance.
    • Processes personal data for controllers and ensures implementation of security measures.
    • Directly responsible for classifying data and defining access permissions.
    • Sets the strategic direction and policies for organizational data management.

    Overall explanation:

    • The processor is tasked with handling personal data in accordance with the controller's directions and must secure the data as per the established standards.
    • While the processor may contribute to assessing and managing risks related to data security and compliance, it is not their primary function; instead, it is more closely related to the roles of security and compliance committees.
    • Directly responsible for classifying data and defining access permissions typically fall under the purview of the data owner, not the processor.
    • Setting the strategic direction and policies for organizational data management is generally associated with the data owner or governance board, not the processor.

    Tags: Data Ownership

Question 82

82. At Griffin Management, a cybersecurity team has been tasked with enhancing the organization's security awareness program. They are focusing on creating and executing effective phishing campaigns to educate employees about recognizing and responding to phishing attempts. Which phase of their security awareness program is Griffin Management in?

    Options:

    • Execution
    • Development
    • Initial
    • Reporting and monitoring

    Overall explanation:

    • The development phase in the security awareness program at DionTraining involves the creation and planning of phishing campaigns and training materials. During this phase, the cybersecurity team designs realistic phishing emails, identifies potential training topics, and develops educational materials to raise awareness among employees about phishing risks.
    • The reporting and monitoring phase focuses on collecting data about employees' responses to phishing campaigns and their overall security awareness. It includes tracking metrics related to the number of reported suspicious emails and the success of the training materials.
    • The term "initial" is not associated with a specific phase in the security awareness program. It does not describe any specific activities related to the creation and planning of phishing campaigns and training materials.
    • The execution phase comes after the development phase, where the cybersecurity team implements the planned phishing campaigns and training materials. They send simulated phishing emails to employees and analyze their responses to identify areas for improvement in the security awareness program.

    Tags: Creating a Culture of Security

Question 83

83. When implementing changes in an IT system, which practice highlights the importance of attempting a trial run of most significant or major changes before full implementation?

    Options:

    • Incident response protocol
    • Network segmentation policy
    • Business continuity planning
    • Change management practices

    Overall explanation:

    • Effective change management emphasizes the controlled and planned implementation of changes. Trying a trial run for major changes before a full-scale rollout helps in gauging potential impacts and ensures smoother transitions.
    • While incident response deals with managing and responding to security incidents, it doesn't inherently involve trialing changes before implementation.
    • While network segmentation divides a network into multiple segments for security and performance benefits, it does not dictate procedures for implementing changes or trying them out before full-scale deployment.
    • Business continuity planning refers to the processes and procedures an organization implements to ensure that essential functions can continue during and after a disaster. While it might involve change implementation, its primary focus isn't on trialing those changes.

    Tags: Change Management

Question 84

84. Things have not been going well as Massive Dynamics, a cloud providing company. They had been using a governance structure where diverse groups of employees worked together to make decisions and implement policies.  However, this structure has led to a confusing mix of policies and, most importantly, a confused security strategy. Following a massive data breach, the Massive Dynamics CEO has restructured the company.  Decision making and policy implementation will now be in the hands of a group of experienced individuals from outside the company. This group will work with the CEO to set policies and make decisions. What governance structure does Massive Dynamics now have?

    Options:

    • Committee
    • Centralized
    • Government
    • Board

    Overall explanation:

    • The Board of Directors, also known as the Board, is responsible for overseeing the overall direction and governance of the organization. Part of their responsibility includes setting and approving the organization's security strategy, ensuring it aligns with the business objectives, and providing guidance to ensure effective security measures are in place.
    • A centralized entity refers to a single centralized authority within an organization responsible for making decisions and implementing policies. While this concept can be applied to certain aspects of security management, it is not the primary entity responsible for overseeing the organization's security strategy.
    • A committee is a group of individuals assigned specific tasks or responsibilities within an organization. While committees may play a role in executing certain security initiatives, they are not primarily responsible for overseeing the organization's security strategy at a higher level.
    • A government entity is a governmental organization or agency that may have regulatory oversight over specific industries or sectors. While they may provide guidelines or regulations related to security, they are not directly responsible for overseeing the internal security strategy of a private organization like SecureTech Solutions.

    Tags: Governance Structures

Question 85

85. David, a network administrator at Dion Training, notices unusual traffic patterns from a specific IP address. He documents the time, source IP, destination, and the nature of the traffic. He then forwards this information to the cybersecurity team for further analysis. Which of the following BEST describes the type of report David just created for the cybersecurity team?

    Options:

    • Trend analysis
    • Risk assessment
    • Forensic report
    • Initial report

    Overall explanation:

    • The first report made to highlight an incident or suspicious activity. It typically includes basic information and is used to alert relevant teams or departments.
    • Trend analysis looks for patterns over time to make predictions about the future. David has provided the initial report of an incident.
    • A risk assessment is a report identifying potential vulnerabilities and threats, assessing the potential impact and likelihood of them occurring.
    • A forensic report is a detailed analysis typically made after an investigation, containing evidence, methodologies, and conclusions about a security incident.

    Tags: Vulnerability Reporting

Question 86

86. At Dion Training, a new initiative has been implemented to enhance operational security awareness among its staff. As part of this initiative, all employees must attend a series of training sessions. Which of the following topics should the training cover to ensure employees understand their role in maintaining operational security? (Select TWO).

    Options:

    • Office Ergonomics
    • Workstation Security
    • Social Media Management
    • Team Building Activities
    • Incident Reporting

    Overall explanation:

    • Employees must learn how to secure their workstations, including the use of password-protected screensavers and locking devices when unattended.
    • The training should emphasize the importance of reporting any suspicious activity or security breaches immediately as per company protocol.
    • Team building is beneficial for work culture but does not directly contribute to operational security awareness. Unless the training specifically addresses the security risks of using social media, general social media management is not a primary component of operational security.
    • While ergonomics is important for employee well-being, it is not directly related to operational security practices.

    Tags: Security Awareness

Question 87

87. At Dion Training, the IT team is working on enhancing their business continuity plan. They want to determine the amount of the time they will need to repair the system after a disruption. This will help them to ensure timely recovery from the event. What measure do they want to determine?

    Options:

    • RPO
    • RTO
    • MTTR
    • MTBF

    Overall explanation:

    • The mean time to repair (MTTR) refers to the measure of the time taken to repair a system or process after it experiences a failure or disruption. It is the average time it takes to restore functionality.
    • The mean time between failures (MTBF) is the measure of the average time between two consecutive failures of a system or component. It represents the average reliability or time between incidents.
    • The recovery point objective (RPO) is the measure of the maximum amount of data loss an organization is willing to tolerate in the event of a disruption. It determines the point in time to which data must be restored after recovery.
    • The recovery time objective (RTO) is the measure of the maximum time it takes to recover a system or process after a disruption. It represents the time within which normal operations need to be restored.

    Tags: Risk Identification

Question 88

88. Which of the following encryption standards is primarily used for securing data at rest and in transit through symmetric key cryptography?

    Options:

    • AES
    • SHA
    • RSA
    • HMAC

    Overall explanation:

    • AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) is a symmetric encryption standard used to protect data at rest and in transit, ensuring confidentiality and security.
    • HMAC (Hash-Based Message Authentication Code) is a specific construction for creating a message authentication code (MAC) involving a cryptographic hash function in combination with a secret key, rather than for encryption purposes.
    • SHA (Secure Hash Algorithm) is a set of cryptographic hash functions designed to ensure data integrity, not to encrypt data.
    • RSA (Rivest-Shamir-Adleman) is an asymmetric encryption standard typically used for secure data transmission, not specifically for data at rest.

    Tags: Symmetric Encryption

Question 89

89. Which of the following BEST describes an organizational structure that allows for autonomous decision-making in separate departments or sectors within the company?

    Options:

    • Decentralized governance
    • Flat organization
    • Matrix structure
    • Hierarchical management

    Overall explanation:

    • In decentralized governance, decision-making is distributed among various departments or sectors, promoting responsiveness and specialization.
    • While matrix structure involves multiple reporting lines, it does not solely define the decision-making autonomy of departments.
    • Flat organization refers to an organization with few or no levels of middle management between staff and executives, which affects management layers but not necessarily decision-making distribution.
    • Hierarchical management implies a top-down approach to decision-making and does not necessarily allow for autonomy in separate departments.

    Tags: Centralized vs Decentralized Architectures

Question 90

90. Which term is defined as the average operational period between the occurrence of two consecutive failures in a system or component?

    Options:

    • MTBF
    • MTTR
    • Operating time
    • Failure rate

    Overall explanation:

    • MTBF (Mean time between failures) represents the typical interval between failures for a system or component, used as a reliability indicator.
    • Failure rate quantifies how often a system or component fails, which is different from the average time interval between failures.
    • Operating time simply tracks the duration that a system or component has been in use, without measuring time between failures.
    • MTTR (Mean time to repair) measures the average time required to repair a system or component, not the time between failures.

    Tags: Risk Identification