Sec+ Practice Test 2

Question 1

1. To ensure that critical encryption keys are available for recovery in case of emergencies, Kelly Innovations LLC has stored a copy of these keys with a trusted third party. Which cryptographic solution is Kelly Innovations LLC using?

   Options:

   • Wildcard certificate
   • Private key
   • Key escrow
   • Public key

   Overall explanation:

   • Kelly Innovations LLC is using key escrow. It's a service where encrypted keys are securely stored with a trusted third party, ensuring their availability for recovery during emergencies, which underlines the importance of having a backup for critical cryptographic assets.
   • Freely distributed, a public key is used to encrypt messages meant for the key holder, but it's not stored for emergency recovery purposes.
   • A wildcard certificate secures multiple subdomains under a main domain but doesn't pertain to the storage or recovery of encryption keys.
   • A private key is kept secret by its holder and is used for decryption. Storing it with another party without additional security measures can pose risks.

   Tags: Digital Certificates

Question 2

2. Rachel, an IT support professional, has been told that one of her company's certificates appears not to be valid. Using the name of the certificate, what is the quickest way for her to see if the certificate has been invalidated?

   Options:

   • Online Certificate Status Protocol
   • Certificate Revocation Lists
   • Certificate Authorities
   • Root of Trust

   Overall explanation:

   • Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) is an internet protocol used for obtaining the revocation status of a digital certificate. Since she has the name, she can quickly look up the certificate to see if it has been invalidated.
   • Root of Trust (RoT) is a source that can always be trusted within a cryptographic system. This does not describe the internet protocol used for obtaining the revocation status of a digital certificate.
   • Certificate Authorities (CAs) are trusted entities that issue and manage security credentials and public keys for message encryption. Contacting the CA to check on the certificate's validity isn't a very fast way to find out if the certificate is invalid.
   • Certificate Revocation Lists (CRLs) are lists of certificates that have been revoked by a Certificate Authority before their scheduled expiration date. This will work, but she will have to scan through the entire list. Since she has the name, her best bet is to use the Online Certificate Status Protocol, not the CRL.

   Tags: Digital Certificates

Question 3

3. The Frozen Dish, a home food delivery service, is reviewing their security systems. Royston, an IT manager, has explained the PKI system to his boss. His boss is alarmed by the idea of public keys and wants to purchase a storage device to save symmetric and asymmetric keys. Royston has explained that the Windows-based devices they use have this type of storage embedded in the motherboards. What is the name of the device that Royston is referring to?

   Options:

   • Hardware security module (HSM)
   • Key management system
   • Secure enclave
   • Trusted Platform Module (TPM)

   Overall explanation:

   • TPM is a hardware-based storage system that contains keys, digital certificates, hashed passwords, and many other types of information used for authentication. It is embedded on device motherboards that use Windows operating systems.
   • A secure enclave is a chip that is used only to secure encryption keys, hashes, and other important data. It is embedded in Apple and Android devices.
   • A key management system is a process used to ensure that keys are kept secure by establishing standards of security. It is a set of policy decisions, not a device such as TPM or HSM.
   • An HSM is a physical computing device that safeguards and manages digital keys for strong authentication. It can be a external device or on an expansion card, but it is not embedded on the motherboard.

   Tags: Encryption Tools

Question 4

4. Dion Training is implementing a solution to secure communication between their internal servers and external clients. They require an encryption protocol that provides secure communication over the internet. Which of the following would be the BEST choice for this requirement?

   Options:

   • FTP (File Transfer Protocol)
   • L2TP (Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol)
   • TLS (Transport Layer Security)
   • SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol)

   Overall explanation:

   • TLS is a cryptographic protocol designed to provide communications security over a computer network, such as the internet. It is widely used for web browsers and other applications that require data to be securely exchanged over a network.
   • L2TP is a tunneling protocol used to support virtual private networks, but it does not provide encryption on its own and is often used with IPsec.
   • FTP is used for transferring files, and while it can work securely with SSL/TLS (FTPS), it's not primarily known for encrypted communications.
   • SNMP is primarily used for managing devices on IP networks, but it is not designed to provide end-to-end encryption for communications.

   Tags: SSL-TLS

Question 5

5. Which of the following is a pre-defined period during which planned changes and upgrades to an IT system are implemented to minimize disruption to users?

   Options:

   • Baseline configuration
   • Recovery point objective
   • Standard operating procedure
   • Maintenance window

   Overall explanation:

   • A maintenance window is a scheduled timeframe during which system updates, patches, or changes are implemented. This period is specifically chosen to reduce the impact on users and ensure business continuity.
   • A baseline configuration represents a set of specifications for a system, against which all future changes are measured. It doesn't refer to the time frame for implementing changes.
   • A Recovery Point Objective is a metric used in disaster recovery that defines the maximum allowable amount of lost data measured in time. It does not pertain to scheduled maintenance periods.
   • An SOP (Standard Operating Procedure) is a set of step-by-step instructions compiled by an organization to help workers carry out complex routine operations. It doesn't specify when these operations should be performed.

   Tags: Change Management

Question 6

6. You are making an appointment to get your hair cut.  When you enter your personal data into the website for Dye My Darling, the data is placed in a database and paired with a smaller set of symbols that will represent your data. To access your personal data, your stylists' computer will access the database.  If an attacker gains access to the computer, they will only see the set of symbols, not your personal data.  What method of concealment is Dye My Darling using?

   Options:

   • Encryption
   • Steganography
   • Tokenization
   • Data Masking

   Overall explanation:

   • Tokenization is the process of substituting a sensitive data element with a non-sensitive equivalent, referred to as a token. The token and the data it substitutes are stored in a secure database. If the original data is needed, it can be accessed using the token and querying the database. The token will be a different size and have a different structure than the original data so the token can’t be used to decipher the original data.
   • Encryption is the process of converting information or data into a code to prevent unauthorized access. It often uses an algorithm to replace the original data with other data. If a person figures out or acquires the algorithm, the data can be decrypted. Encrypted data isn't stored in a database.
   • Data masking is a method to de-identify some or all characters in a sequence, but not changing the total number of characters that a field should contain. The masked version will be structurally the same, but the data will be hidden. Changing the letters or numbers entered into a password field with dots is an example of data masking. Data that is masked will have the same number of characters as the original data, not a smaller set.
   • Steganography is the practice of concealing a file, message, image, or video within another file, message, image, or video. It doesn't use a database

   Tags: Obfuscation

Question 7

7. In which symmetric encryption method is plaintext divided into equal-sized blocks, potentially requiring padding to fit the designated block size, and then subjected to complex operations based on a specific key value?

   Options:

   • Transposition
   • Block cipher
   • Stream cipher
   • AES

   Overall explanation:

   • Block ciphers process plaintext in equal-sized chunks, such as 128-bit blocks. If a plaintext doesn't align with this block size, it must be padded. The plaintext undergoes detailed transposition and substitution operations depending on the key value, ensuring secure encryption.
   • Transposition is a type of operation used within encryption processes, especially within block ciphers, but isn't a type of symmetric encryption on its own.
   • The Advanced Encryption Standard is a widely-adopted encryption cipher and is a type of block cipher. While it provides an encryption mechanism, it's not a general category of symmetric encryption.
   • Stream ciphers work by encrypting data one byte or bit at a time, making them ideal for scenarios where the total length of the message isn't known in advance.

   Tags: Symmetric vs Asymmetric

Question 8

8. When sending an encrypted message to Dion Training, a client would use which of the following to ensure only Dion Training can decrypt and read the message?

   Options:

   • Wildcard certificate
   • Public key
   • Key escrow
   • Private key

   Overall explanation:

   • The client would use the company's public key to encrypt the message. Only Dion Training, with the corresponding private key, can decrypt and read the message, ensuring confidentiality and demonstrating the importance of public-key cryptography.
   • A private key is kept secret by its holder and is used to decrypt messages that are encrypted with its corresponding public key. It's not used by external entities to encrypt messages to the key holder.
   • A wildcard certificate secures multiple subdomains under a main domain but doesn't directly involve message encryption or decryption.
   • Key escrow refers to the secure storage of cryptographic keys, ensuring they can be accessed under specific conditions, but it's not directly used to encrypt or decrypt messages.

   Tags: Asymmetric Encryption

Question 9

9. Which of the following terms is used to describe a list that specifically indicates entities that should be explicitly denied access or permissions?

   Options:

   • Allow list
   • Documentation
   • Service restart
   • Deny list

   Overall explanation:

   • A deny list is a list specifying entities that are explicitly denied access or permissions.
   • Documentation is the practice of maintaining detailed notes or manuals regarding processes, configurations, or system designs.
   • A service restart is the act of stopping and then starting a service, often to apply changes or updates.
   • An allow list is a list specifying entities, such as IP addresses, that are explicitly granted access or permissions.

   Tags: Technical Implications of Changes

Question 10

10. Which of the following is a formal request to a certificate authority for a digital certificate and contains the public key to be signed by the CA?

    Options:

    • Root of trust
    • Self-signed certificate
    • Wildcard certificate
    • CSR

    Overall explanation:

    • A CSR (Certificate Signing Request) is a message sent to a certificate authority containing details and the public key that the entity wishes to be certified. Once approved, the CA provides a certificate.
    • A self-signed certificate is signed by the same entity that generated it, not a formal request for another certificate.
    • A wildcard certificate is used to secure multiple subdomains under a single domain.
    • The request itself is not termed as a wildcard. The root of trust is the source of trust in a system, usually an entity or key, not a request for a certificate.

    Tags: Digital Certificates

Question 11

11. In a large financial institution, like Kelly Finacial Solutions, which of the following BEST describes an example of a task that an IT technician might be prohibited from doing without special authorization due to security concerns?

    Options:

    • Checking their corporate email.
    • Using the office printer for printing documents.
    • Downloading and installing games from the internet.
    • Installing a recommended software update.

    Overall explanation:

    • Downloading and installing games from the internet are typically categorized as Restricted Activities within corporate environments, especially in sensitive sectors like finance, due to the potential security risks associated. Malicious software can easily be introduced into the system through unverified game installations.
    • While installing a recommended software update could be restricted in certain scenarios, the term "recommended" implies that it's an endorsed activity.
    • In most institutions, using the office printer for printing documents is a regular task and isn't categorized as a restricted activity unless it involves printing sensitive data without proper authorization.
    • Checking their corporate email is a standard activity for most employees and wouldn't be restricted in a typical business setting.

    Tags:

Question 12

12. The process of regularly applying updates to software and systems to fix known vulnerabilities and improve security is best defined by which term?

    Options:

    • Configuration enforcement
    • Decommissioning
    • Patching
    • Monitoring

    Overall explanation:

    • Patching, the act of updating or fixing software to address vulnerabilities, ensures that systems are guarded against known threats.
    • Decommissioning, the process of taking systems or components out of active service, is not focused on updating current systems.
    • Monitoring, the process of continuously observing and checking the operation of a system or network, ensures its functionality and security but not directly dealing with software updates
    • Configuration enforcement, ensuring that systems and applications run with the correct and secure settings, doesn't particularly address software vulnerabilities.

    Tags: Patch Management

Question 13

13. Which of the following mitigation technique is BEST for preventing data breaches from devices that are no longer in use?

    Options:

    • Patching
    • Decommissioning
    • Encryption
    • Isolation

    Overall explanation:

    • Decommissioning is a technique that can help reduce the risk of data breaches or theft by securely disposing of systems and devices that are no longer needed or used. Decommissioning involves following a set of procedures to erase or destroy any sensitive data stored on the systems and devices, and to physically dispose of them in a safe and environmentally friendly manner.
    • Encryption is a technique that can help protect data from unauthorized access or modification by transforming it into an unreadable format. Encryption involves using mathematical algorithms and secret keys to encrypt and decrypt data, but they do not securely dispose of systems and devices that are no longer needed or used. Encryption will help prevent data breaches for unused devices, but decommissioning destroys the data instead of just masking it, so decommissioning is a better choice for unused devices.
    • Isolation is a mitigation technique that can help prevent malware from spreading from one system or process to another by limiting their interaction and communication. Isolation involves sandboxing or simply disconnecting an infected system. This prevents potentially malicious programs or scripts from accessing the rest of the system or network. This mitigation technique will help protect systems that are still in use, but for devices that are no longer used, decommissioning provides much more protection from data breaches.
    • Patching is a technique that can help prevent exploitation of known vulnerabilities on systems and devices by updating them with the latest security fixes and enhancements. Patching involves applying patches or updates to software and systems to devices still in use. It does little to protect data on devices that are no longer in use.

    Tags: Asset Disposal and Decommissioning

Question 14

14. Which of the following is an application vulnerability that involves the exploitation of the time gap between when a system checks a condition and when it uses the condition, potentially leading to unauthorized access or data corruption?

    Options:

    • Memory Injection
    • Race Conditions
    • Malicious Update
    • Buffer Overflow

    Overall explanation:

    • Race conditions, especially Time-of-Check to Time-of-Use (TOCTOU), exploit the time gap between checking and using a condition, potentially causing unauthorized alterations or access.
    • Malicious updates involve the unauthorized alteration of software updates, not the exploitation of timing vulnerabilities within a system.
    • Buffer overflow involves overloading a system’s buffer memory, causing it to crash or execute arbitrary code, rather than exploiting timing differences.
    • Memory injection is the insertion of malicious code into a system’s memory, not the exploitation of a time gap between a check and use of a condition.

    Tags: Race Conditions

Question 15

15. Which of the following scenarios BEST describes a file-based threat?

    Options:

    • Typing a slightly incorrect URL and landing on a fake website.
    • An executive's email being spoofed to request fund transfers.
    • Opening an Excel file that installs ransomware.
    • Receiving a fake bank call asking for account details.

    Overall explanation:

    • Opening an Excel file that installs ransomware is a technique where attackers embed malicious software within seemingly innocent documents. When unsuspecting users open the file, the ransomware activates, potentially encrypting files and demanding a ransom for their release.
    • An executive's email being spoofed to request fund transfers is often referred to as Business Email Compromise (BEC) or CEO fraud and involves attackers impersonating executives or high-ranking individuals to deceive employees into making unauthorized transactions or disclosing confidential data.
    • Typing a slightly incorrect URL and landing on a fake website is a strategy called typosquatting or URL hijacking. Cybercriminals register domains with slight misspellings of popular websites. Unsuspecting users, making typographical errors when entering the URL, are directed to these malicious sites, which may steal data or spread malware.
    • Receiving a fake bank call asking for account details is a form of vishing, where attackers impersonate legitimate entities over the phone to trick individuals into providing sensitive information. These scams often prey on the victim's trust and lack of awareness.

    Tags: Malware Attack Techniques

Question 16

16. Which of the following cryptographic algorithms is primarily used for digital signatures and key exchanges, rather than direct encryption of data?

    Options:

    • DES
    • SHA-256
    • ECC
    • Twofish

    Overall explanation:

    • ECC (Elliptic Curve Cryptography) is a form of public key cryptography based on the algebraic structure of elliptic curves over finite fields primarily used for digital signatures and key exchanges.
    • DES (Data Encryption Standard) is an older symmetric-key method of data encryption which was largely replaced due to vulnerabilities, focusing primarily on data encryption.
    • SHA-256 (Secure Hash Algorithm 256-bit) is a cryptographic hash function, not primarily used for digital signatures or key exchanges.
    • Twofish is a symmetric block cipher which, like AES, encrypts data in blocks using the same key for encryption and decryption.

    Tags: Asymmetric Algorithms

Question 17

17. Jamario, a senior developer at Kelly Innovations LLC, was examining the logs of the company's employee portal. He noticed that certain user login attempts contained strings such as '<script>', 'alert()', and 'document.cookie'. Intriguingly, alongside these strings, the system flagged several unsuccessful attempts to retrieve the admin credentials. Which of the following BEST elucidates the type of attack attempt on Kelly Innovations LLC's employee portal?

    Options:

    • Code Injection
    • Cross-site request forgery (CSRF)
    • Command injection
    • Directory traversal

    Overall explanation:

    • Code injection is an attack method in which malicious code is introduced into a vulnerable application. Strings like '<script>', 'alert()', and 'document.cookie' are indicative of attempts to inject malicious scripts to exploit the application. It aims to execute unauthorized actions within the application, such as retrieving sensitive data.
    • Directory traversal attacks focus on accessing files and directories stored outside the web root folder. The observed inputs, specifically oriented towards script execution, don't fall under this category.
    • Command injection involves the execution of arbitrary commands on the host operating system. Although it's a form of injection attack, it's not usually indicated by script-related strings within application logs.
    • CSRF attacks trick victims into executing unwanted actions on a website where they're authenticated. The attack usually involves a third party and doesn't typically involve direct code injections like the ones Jamario observed.

    Tags: Injection Attacks

Question 18

18. Which of the following mitigation techniques can help prevent unauthorized execution of programs or scripts on a system or device by requiring users or processes to have the appropriate level of access before allowing them to run the programs or scripts?

    Options:

    • Configuration enforcement
    • Monitoring
    • Permissions
    • Encryption

    Overall explanation:

    • Access control through permissions is a mitigation technique that can help prevent unauthorized execution of programs or scripts on a system or device. This is achieved by defining permissions through policies and applying those policies to resources such as programs, scripts, files, folders, and databases. Users without the correct permissions, can’t access the resources.
    • Configuration enforcement is a mitigation technique that can help prevent unauthorized or improper changes that increase a system or device’s vulnerability to attack. By creating predefined security standards and policies, and enforcing them, configuration enforcement helps prevent the inadvertent or purposeful creation of vulnerabilities and security risks. Configuration enforcement limits changes to settings within the system or device. It doesn't limit access through permissions.
    • Monitoring is a mitigation technique that can help detect and respond to potential threats or incidents on a network. By collecting and analyzing data about the activities and events on the network, security analysts can develop theories about the vulnerabilities and incidents that occur on the system. Monitoring involves using tools and techniques such as logs, alerts, and audits. This allows detection of violations, but doesn't prevent users from violating the policies.
    • Encryption is a technique that can help protect data from unauthorized access or modification by transforming it into an unreadable format. Encryption involves using mathematical algorithms and secret keys to encrypt and decrypt data, but it does not require users or processes to have the appropriate level of access or privilege before allowing them to run the programs or scripts.

    Tags: Assigning Permissions

Question 19

19. Who among the following represents the pinnacle of capability, potentially leveraging both digital and non-digital means to achieve their objectives?

    Options:

    • State-sponsored Advanced Persistent Threat
    • Troll
    • Grey hat hacker
    • Whistleblower

    Overall explanation:

    • State-sponsored Advanced Persistent Threats, backed by nation states, not only utilize sophisticated cyber tools but also have potential access to political or military assets.
    • A whistleblower is an individual who exposes confidential or classified information, often for ethical reasons.
    • Grey hat hackers operate between ethical and malicious intent, often seeking vulnerabilities but not for malevolent purposes.
    • A troll engages in online disruptions, often seeking emotional reactions but not necessarily having high-end capabilities.

    Tags: Threat Actors

Question 20

20. John, a senior executive at Dion Training Solutions, accessed his corporate email from New York at 10:00 AM. The logs also showed a login attempt to the same account from Tokyo at 10:15 AM, and then another one from Paris at 10:30 AM. The IT team at Dion Training Solutions grew concerned about this activity. Which of the following statements BEST describes the activity related to John's account?

    Options:

    • Detection of impossible travel.
    • Multi-factor authentication failure.
    • Scheduled system maintenance.
    • Legitimate use of a VPN.

    Overall explanation:

    • The activity logs show John accessing his account from geographically disparate locations in a short time frame – a feat that's physically impossible. Such patterns indicate potential unauthorized access or account compromise.
    • System maintenance might result in irregularities in system behavior, but it wouldn't cause login attempts from various global locations in rapid succession.
    • Using a VPN can change a user's apparent location, but the specific pattern and speed of these global logins are unusual and not characteristic of typical VPN use.
    • While multi-factor authentication is crucial for account security, the scenario doesn't mention any failed authentication attempts using multiple factors.

    Tags: Indicators of Compromise (IoC)

Question 21

21. Which of the following web-based attacks involves inserting malicious scripts into web pages that can be executed by the browser of unsuspecting users?

    Options:

    • Virtual machine (VM) escape
    • Cross-site scripting (XSS)
    • Firmware vulnerability
    • Structured Query Language injection (SQLi)

    Overall explanation:

    • Cross-site scripting (XSS) is a web-based attack that involves inserting malicious scripts into web pages that are executed by the browser of unsuspecting users. It can allow an attacker to steal cookies, session tokens, credentials, or perform other actions on behalf of the user.
    • Firmware is a type of software that is embedded in hardware devices and controls their functionality. It is not a web-based attack, but it can be vulnerable to attacks such as malicious updates or backdoors.
    • Structured Query Language injection (SQLi) is a web-based attack that involves inserting malicious SQL statements into user input fields or URLs that are executed by the database server. It can allow an attacker to read, modify, delete, or execute commands on the database.
    • Virtual machine (VM) escape is a type of attack that involves breaking out of a virtualized environment and gaining access to the underlying host system or other virtual machines. It can allow an attacker to compromise the security and isolation of the virtualization platform.

    Tags: XSS and XSRF

Question 22

22. Which of the following threat vectors is associated with the risks stemming from not changing pre-set login information on systems, potentially allowing easy unauthorized access?

    Options:

    • Business email compromise
    • Managed service providers
    • Phishing
    • Default credentials

    Overall explanation:

    • Default credentials specifically denotes the risk associated with using factory-set login details, making systems susceptible to unauthorized access as attackers often have knowledge of such credentials.
    • Business email compromise is centered around manipulating business email systems to achieve unauthorized financial gain or access sensitive data. It doesn’t primarily involve exploiting systems with unchanged login information.
    • Managed service providers are third-party organizations managing services for others. The associated risks are not centered around using pre-configured login details but can include a variety of other vulnerabilities and misconfigurations.
    • Phishing attacks aim to deceive individuals into disclosing sensitive information through seemingly legitimate communication methods, such as emails or messages, rather than exploiting default system credentials.

    Tags: Changing Default Configurations

Question 23

23. Hani, a security analyst, is investigating a malware incident and finds that the malware was placed on the computers several weeks ago. At midnight last night, the malware released a virus on four servers which spread throughout the organization's computers. The CEO has discovered a message from a former employee saying that he had left a surprise for the company. Which of the following types of malware is MOST likely involved in this incident?

    Options:

    • Worm
    • Ransomware
    • Logic bomb
    • Trojan

    Overall explanation:

    • A logic bomb is a type of malware that executes a malicious action when a specific condition or trigger is met, such as a date, time, or event.
    • A Trojan is a type of malware that disguises itself as a legitimate or benign program, but performs malicious actions when executed.
    • A worm is a type of malware that self-replicates and spreads to other systems or networks without user interaction.
    • Ransomware is a type of malware that encrypts the data or files on a system and demands a ransom for their decryption or restoration.

    Tags: Logic Bomb

Question 24

24. Sasha's company is using a database system that has been discontinued and is no longer receiving security updates from its vendor. Which of the following BEST describes this vulnerability that the company should mitigate?

    Options:

    • Legacy platform
    • End-of-life hardware
    • Deprecated system
    • Outdated firmware

    Overall explanation:

    • A legacy platform is one that is no longer supported with security patches by its developer or vendor, rendering it vulnerable to potential security threats as it becomes unpatchable.
    • While end-of-life hardware might not receive physical updates or replacements, it doesn't specifically address the lack of software or security support.
    • While "deprecated" might mean that a system is not recommended for use, it doesn't necessarily mean it's unsupported by its developer or vendor.
    • Outdated firmware refers specifically to the software embedded within hardware devices and not to broader systems like databases or applications.

    Tags:

Question 25

25. An application creates a temporary file to save a value for later use. A malicious actor deletes this file after its creation but before its subsequent use by the application. What type of vulnerability is being exploited in this situation?

    Options:

    • Memory injection
    • Time-of-use (TOU)
    • Race conditions
    • Memory leaks

    Overall explanation:

    • A Time-of-use (TOU) vulnerability arises when there's an opportunity for an attacker to manipulate a resource after its creation but before its use by an application.
    • Memory leaks involve software not releasing memory that it no longer uses, potentially leading to reduced system performance, and doesn't concern data manipulation between creation and use.
    • Though race conditions refer to unexpected order and timing of events, the specific act of manipulating a temporary file between its creation and use is a classic TOU scenario.
    • While memory injection deals with injecting malicious code into a system's memory, it's not related to manipulating temporary files between creation and use.

    Tags: Race Conditions

Question 26

26. Which of the following refers to the act where malware running on a guest OS manages to get to another guest or the host within a virtualized environment?

    Options:

    • VM escaping
    • Hypervisor patching
    • Virtualization detection
    • Guest OS isolation

    Overall explanation:

    • VM escaping refers to the ability of malware on a guest OS to breach the virtualization layer, allowing it to affect another guest OS or the host system itself.
    • Hypervisor patching refers to the act of updating or patching the hypervisor software to address known vulnerabilities and ensure the security of the virtualized environment.
    • Virtualization detection refers to methods used by malware or attackers to detect if they are operating within a virtual environment, often to alter their behavior accordingly.
    • Guest OS isolation is the process of ensuring that each guest OS operates independently and securely, without interacting or affecting other guest OSs or the host.

    Tags: Virtualization and Containerization

Question 27

27. Which of the following ports, if left open and unmonitored, might allow database queries from unauthorized external sources?

    Options:

    • Port 21
    • Port 1433
    • Port 443
    • Port 53

    Overall explanation:

    • Port 1433 is the default for Microsoft SQL Server. Organizations typically restrict or monitor access to this port to prevent unauthorized database operations.
    • Domain Name System (DNS) uses port 53 for resolving domain names into IP addresses. It isn't associated with database operations.
    • Port 443 is used for secure web traffic through SSL/TLS. It's not directly related to database queries.
    • File Transfer Protocol (FTP) uses port 21 for unencrypted data transfers, not for database operations.

    Tags: Ports and Protocols

Question 28

28. Several employees at Dion Training Solutions reported that they were unable to access their accounts early in the morning, even though they were sure they inputted their passwords correctly. On investigation, the IT team found that these accounts had been locked after multiple failed login attempts in rapid succession during the night. Which of the following terms BEST describes the what was responsible for the issue?

    Options:

    • Brute force attack
    • Account lockout
    • Credential stuffing
    • Password spraying

    Overall explanation:

    • Account lockout policies are designed to prevent attackers from guessing users' passwords, so after a specified number of failed attempts, the account is locked. This scenario describes this exact behavior occurring en masse.
    • In password spraying, the attacker tries a few common passwords against many accounts. This scenario describes multiple rapid failed login attempts on specific accounts, not the use of common passwords against many accounts.
    • Credential stuffing involves using previously breached usernames and passwords to gain unauthorized access to user accounts. While related, it doesn't specifically describe accounts being locked out due to multiple rapid failed login attempts.
    • A brute force attack is an attack method where numerous combinations are tried until the correct password is identified. While the account lockouts might be a result of a brute force attack, the scenario specifically describes the end result: account lockouts.

    Tags: Attacking with Brute Force

Question 29

29. Kelly Innovations LLC is hosting an offsite meeting at a hotel. Benjamin is trying to access the hotel's Wi-Fi network. Upon connecting, he's not required to input any credentials but is redirected to a splash page when he launches his browser. This page requests his room number and last name. Benjamin is aware of potential threats on open networks and wants to ensure his communications remain confidential. Given this situation, what should Benjamin do to ensure secure communication over the open Wi-Fi?

    Options:

    • Connect without hesitation because the splash page uses HTTPS.
    • Use Wi-Fi Enhanced Open because it uses the Dragonfly handshake.
    • Transfer confidential files over email since the splash page is secure.
    • Establish a VPN connection after associating with the open hotspot.

    Overall explanation:

    • Establishing a VPN connection after associating with the open hotspot is recommended for open networks. Establishing a VPN would create an encrypted tunnel, ensuring Benjamin's communications are secure even on the open Wi-Fi network.
    • While Wi-Fi Enhanced Open provides encryption, Benjamin doesn't control the hotel's network setup and can't choose this option.
    • Just because the splash page is secure doesn't mean email transfers will be. Without additional security measures, it isn't recommended to transfer confidential files over open networks.
    • While HTTPS is secure, it doesn't guarantee that other communications on the network will be encrypted.

    Tags: VPN

Question 30

30. Which of the following ports should be disabled or carefully monitored to prevent unauthorized Voice over IP (VoIP) signaling, which can be an avenue for toll fraud or unauthorized call control?

    Options:

    • Port 110
    • Port 139
    • Port 161
    • Port 5060

    Overall explanation:

    • Session Initiation Protocol (SIP), port 5060, is used for signaling in Voice over IP (VoIP) services. Unauthorized access to this port can result in toll fraud or unauthorized call control.
    • Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP), port 161, is used for collecting and organizing information about managed devices, and it's unrelated to VoIP services.
    • Post Office Protocol (POP3), port 110, is used for retrieving emails from a mail server, unrelated to VoIP services.
    • NetBIOS, port 139, is used for file and print sharing over local networks, not for VoIP signaling.

    Tags: Ports and Protocols, Session Initiation Protocol

Question 31

31. Mary purchased a new laptop. Upon booting it up for the first time, she noticed several pre-installed applications that she neither requested nor intended to use. These applications consumed a significant amount of system resources, causing noticeable slowdowns. Mary was annoyed because she felt she didn't need any of these programs and they were just taking up valuable space and resources on her new device. Which of the following types of malicious software is Mary MOST likely dealing with on her new laptop?

    Options:

    • Trojan horse
    • Ransomware
    • Bloatware
    • Spyware

    Overall explanation:

    • Bloatware refers to software that comes pre-installed on a device, which might be unnecessary or unwanted by the user, and can often consume system resources. Mary's experience aligns with typical bloatware characteristics.
    • A Trojan horse is malware disguised as legitimate software. Mary's concern is about pre-installed software, not software she mistakenly downloaded or installed.
    • Spyware covertly tracks user activities and can monitor local application activity. Mary's issue doesn't seem to revolve around any tracking or monitoring.
    • Ransomware locks files or systems and demands a ransom. Mary doesn't mention any encryption or demands related to her new laptop.

    Tags: Spyware and Bloatware

Question 32

32. Which of the following approaches ensures real-time or near-real-time duplication of data to a secondary location for purposes like high availability, disaster recovery, and load balancing?

    Options:

    • Snapshots
    • Replication
    • Journaling
    • Differential backups

    Overall explanation:

    • Replication involves creating copies of data in real-time or near-real-time to another location. This ensures data availability, even if one location fails, and can also aid in load balancing.
    • Journaling monitors and records all transactions and changes to a system. It aids in recovery by using recorded logs, but it doesn't provide real-time data duplication to another location.
    • Snapshots capture the state of a system at a specific point in time. While they offer quick recovery options, they do not involve real-time duplication of data.
    • Differential backups store all changes made since the last full backup. They provide a medium between full and incremental backups but do not provide real-time data duplication.

    Tags: Data Backups

Question 33

33. As part of their expansion, Kelly Innovations LLC decided to break their monolithic application into microservices. While this provides scalability, which of the following security implications should the organization be MOST concerned with?

    Options:

    • Reduced monitoring endpoints.
    • Singular deployment cadence.
    • Consolidation of data storage.
    • Granular access controls requirements.

    Overall explanation:

    • As applications are broken down into microservices, each service might need specific access controls, potentially complicating the permissions landscape.
    • Microservices allow for independent deployments, moving away from a singular deployment cadence which is more associated with monolithic structures.
    • Microservices often distribute data storage needs across services, rather than consolidating them, making this option less relevant.
    • Microservices can actually increase the number of endpoints that need to be monitored, rather than reducing them.

    Tags: Microservices

Question 34

34. What describes the capability of a system to continue its operations even in the event of a failure or disaster?

    Options:

    • Parallel Processing
    • Warm site
    • Platform diversity
    • Continuity of operations

    Overall explanation:

    • Continuity of operations relates to the ability of a system to continue functioning during and after a disruption, like a disaster or system failure.
    • Parallel processing involves using multiple CPUs to process different parts of a bigger task. It requires the task to be broken into separate parts. The benefits of parallel processing include greater speed and greater fault tolerance. In addition, it can be cheaper because using several lower performance CPUs may mean that an expensive, higher performance CPU isn’t needed.
    • It isn't a plan to keep the organization going. Warm sites have much of the equipment and the set up already at the site. Devices may be kept updated, but the data will need to be loaded. Warm sites take longer to get ready than hot sites, but not as long as cold sites. This may be part of a larger continuity of operations plan, but it requires time and expense to make a warm site into a hot site. This means there will be down time.
    • Platform diversity refers to using a range of different technologies and vendors to avoid a single point of failure, but doesn't necessarily guarantee continuous operations.

    Tags: High Availability

Question 35

35. Which of the following concepts to consider when deciding on an architecture model refers to the ability of a system to provide timely and accurate feedback to user requests?

    Options:

    • Responsiveness
    • Availability
    • Risk transference
    • Hybrid considerations

    Overall explanation:

    • Responsiveness is the ability of a system to provide timely and accurate feedback to user requests. It can affect user satisfaction, performance, and efficiency.
    • Hybrid considerations are the security implications of using a combination of cloud and on-premises resources to deliver services and applications, not providing timely and accurate feedback to user requests.
    • Risk transference is transferring some or all of the risk associated with an activity or asset to another party, such as an insurance company or a vendor, not providing timely and accurate feedback to user requests.
    • Availability is the ability of a system to remain operational and accessible at all times, not providing timely and accurate feedback to user requests.

    Tags: On-premise versus the Cloud

Question 36

36. An organization deploys numerous specialized devices with software hard-coded into their firmware. These devices cannot be easily updated or patched. Which security concern is MOST directly associated with this type of system?

    Options:

    • Microservice architecture
    • Zero trust model
    • Embedded system
    • High availability system

    Overall explanation:

    • Because the software is hardcoded, embedded systems often lack the flexibility for timely updates or patches, potentially leaving them vulnerable to undiscovered or unaddressed threats.
    • Microservices allow for independent deployment of services, making them easier to patch or update, which contrasts the issue presented.
    • While high availability ensures system uptime, it doesn't inherently present a concern of inflexible or hardcoded software.
    • A zero trust model is a security model that doesn't inherently relate to hard-coded software or the inability to patch devices.

    Tags: Embedded Systems

Question 37

37. Morris has arranged an exercise for his security team to test the new plans they have developed. He has set up a table with equipment and arranged chairs on opposite sides of the table. On each side, he has set up groups of parallel experience and size. Some team members will be the good guys, defending the system. Others will be the bad guys and try to breakdown the defenses that the new plans have created. The winners will have lunch catered in. What is Morris creating?

    Options:

    • Fail over
    • Tabletop exercises
    • Simulation
    • Parallel Processing

    Overall explanation:

    • Simulations are often team based. One team works as the intruders while the other team responds to the threat. There are often moderators who set the rules and ensure that teams abide by them. These types of exercises require more planning and can cost more than tabletop exercises.
    • A tabletop exercise begins with a scenario. People taking part in the exercise present ideas about how they would deal with the scenario. These types of exercises are discussion based. They don’t require technology to complete. While the exercises will be done around a table, the exercise itself is a simulation because there are teams and more than just discussion.
    • Fail over area meant to keep an organization running after a significant failure. They are meant to be temporary means to prevent complete failure. They are less expensive than a full scale backup plan. They are sort of a like a spare tire for your car. You wouldn’t want to use the spare tire permanently. but it will allow you to get home or to a place where you can buy a new tire or fix the flat one. This isn't a method of testing security measures.
    • Parallel processing involves using multiple CPUs to process different parts of a bigger task. It requires the task to be broken into separate parts. The benefits of parallel processing include greater speed and greater fault tolerance. In addition, it can be cheaper because using several lower performance CPUs may mean that an expensive, higher performance CPU isn’t needed. This isn't a method of testing security measures.

    Tags: Resilience and Recovery Testing

Question 38

38. Sasha, a system administrator at Dion Training, recently received a directive to ensure that all data backups are compliant with privacy regulations. Given that these backups occasionally need to be transported offsite, which of the following measures would be MOST critical for her to implement?

    Options:

    • Password protection
    • Digital signatures
    • Checksums
    • Encryption of backups

    Overall explanation:

    • Given the need to transport backups and remain compliant with privacy regulations, encrypting backups would ensure that even if the data is intercepted, it remains unreadable to unauthorized entities.
    • While password protection adds a layer of security, it doesn't provide the robust protection that encryption offers, especially for sensitive data.
    • While digital signatures can verify the authenticity of data, they don't protect the actual data from being read if intercepted during transportation.
    • Checksums are useful for detecting errors in data, but won't prevent unauthorized access to the contents of the backup.

    Tags: Data Backups

Question 39

39. When integrating Cloud services with external applications, which of the following considerations is crucial for assessing the security risks associated with data transmission to these external service providers?

    Options:

    • Data encryption during transmission
    • Endpoint Security
    • Virtualization Isolation
    • Access Control Policies

    Overall explanation:

    • When integrating with external applications like Salesforce, it's crucial to consider the data encryption during transmission to assess and mitigate security risks.
    • While Access Control Policies are important, they primarily govern who can access what within an environment and do not specifically address data transmission security to external providers.
    • While crucial, endpoint security primarily safeguards the devices connected to a network, not focusing on the data transmission to external service providers.
    • Virtualization isolation involves the segregation of virtual machines, but doesn’t specifically cater to data transmission security with third-party applications.

    Tags: Encryption Tools

Question 40

40. Given that cloud architecture provides dynamic resource allocation, which of the following security considerations is MOST critical when dealing with the compute component?

    Options:

    • Limiting the number of virtual machines.
    • Ensuring isolation between different instances.
    • Frequent backup of workload data.
    • Implementing strong user authentication.

    Overall explanation:

    • As the cloud provides resources abstracted from physical hardware, maintaining strict isolation between different workload instances ensures that one instance's vulnerabilities or threats don't compromise another. Breaching this isolation could allow lateral movement within the cloud environment.
    • While essential for security, user authentication is more about controlling access than directly dealing with the compute resource's dynamic allocation in the cloud.
    • Backup strategies are crucial for data integrity and recovery, but they don't address the specific security concerns introduced by the dynamic resource allocation of compute components.
    • Restricting the number of VMs might conserve resources, but it doesn't directly address the inherent security implications of on-demand compute allocation in a cloud environment.

    Tags: Cloud Security

Question 41

41. Kelly Financial Solutions processes thousands of credit card transactions daily. To enhance security, the IT department wants to ensure that sensitive data, such as credit card numbers, remains protected even while being actively processed in the system's memory. Which technology would be MOST effective in safeguarding data-in-use in this scenario?

    Options:

    • Homomorphic encryption
    • Data loss prevention (DLP)
    • Virtual private network (VPN)
    • Full disk encryption (FDE)

    Overall explanation:

    • Homomorphic encryption allows data to be processed without being decrypted, effectively securing data-in-use. Computations can be performed on the encrypted data directly, and the results, when decrypted, match as if the operations were done on the plaintext.
    • DLP solutions monitor and control data transfers, helping to prevent data breaches. However, they don't provide specific protection for data being actively processed in memory.
    • While FDE is effective for protecting data at rest, especially on hard drives or SSDs, it doesn't specifically secure data-in-use.
    • A VPN encrypts network traffic between two points, ensuring data-in-transit security. It doesn't focus on safeguarding data actively being processed in a system's memory.

    Tags: Data States

Question 42

42. Kelly Innovations LLC is setting up a secure network environment where administrators can manage multiple servers without directly connecting to them. Which of the following would BEST suit this requirement?

    Options:

    • Proxy server
    • Jump server
    • Intrusion prevention system (IPS)
    • Firewall

    Overall explanation:

    • A jump server, also known as a jump host, acts as an intermediary server through which administrators can connect to other servers. This layer provides a controlled means of access, reducing the exposure of the underlying infrastructure.
    • A firewall filters incoming and outgoing network traffic based on an organization's previously configured policies. It is not designed to provide an intermediary access point for administrators.
    • A proxy server primarily serves as an intermediary for requests from clients seeking resources from other servers. While it does act as a go-between, its main focus isn't for administrative access but rather to control and optimize internet usage.
    • An IPS monitors network traffic for malicious activity. If any suspicious traffic is detected, it takes action based on its configuration but doesn't facilitate administrative access to other servers.

    Tags: Network Appliances

Question 43

43. Kelly Innovations LLC is looking to secure their web applications against various threats like cross-site scripting and SQL injection attacks. They also want to monitor and log HTTP/HTTPS traffic for malicious patterns. Given the requirement and the specific protocols mentioned, which of the following would be the MOST suitable solution?

    Options:

    • Proxy server on port 8080
    • WAF
    • EAP
    • UTM

    Overall explanation:

    • A WAF (Web application firewall) protects web applications by monitoring, filtering, and blocking HTTP/HTTPS traffic that can exploit any vulnerabilities in the application. Typically, it operates on Layer 7 (Application Layer) of the OSI model and can specifically defend against common web-based threats.
    • While a proxy server can act as an intermediary for network requests and offers some level of security by obscuring the true network addresses, it is not inherently designed to defend against specific web application threats like a WAF.
    • The mention of port 8080, a common alternate port for HTTP, might make it seem relevant but doesn't specifically cater to the requirement described.
    • EAP (Extensible authentication protocol) is an authentication framework, not a specific protocol. While EAP offers several methods and supports authentication for wireless networks and point-to-point connections, it doesn't specifically filter or block malicious HTTP/HTTPS traffic targeting web application vulnerabilities.
    • A UTM (Unified threat management) is an all-in-one security solution that can include a WAF, but it also comprises other functionalities like anti-virus, anti-spam, VPN, and more. While a UTM can indeed monitor HTTP/HTTPS traffic, choosing a specific WAF might be more tailored to the described requirement.

    Tags: Firewalls for Security

Question 44

44. Which of the following architecture models involves using a single point of control or authority to manage a system or service?

    Options:

    • Decentralized
    • Centralized
    • Responsibility Matrix
    • On-Premises

    Overall explanation:

    • Centralized is an architecture model that involves using a single point of control or authority to manage a system or service. Centralized systems or services can have advantages such as simplicity, consistency, and security, but also disadvantages such as single point of failure, scalability issues, and lack of autonomy.
    • Decentralized is an architecture model that involves using multiple distributed points of control or authority to manage a system or service. Decentralized systems or services can have advantages such as resilience, scalability, and autonomy, but also disadvantages such as complexity, inconsistency, and security challenges.
    • A responsibility matrix is a document that defines the roles and responsibilities of different parties involved in a cloud service agreement, such as the cloud service provider, the cloud customer, and the cloud user. It clarifies who is accountable for what aspects of security, compliance, and operations in a cloud environment. It isn't an architecture model.
    • On-premises is an architecture model that involves hosting and managing infrastructure on the organization’s own premises. It can be centralized or decentralized

    Tags: Centralized vs Decentralized Architectures

Question 45

45. A fintech startup uses microservices to handle various financial transactions. Which of the following security implications should they be MOST wary of when implementing microservices?

    Options:

    • Monolithic deployment patterns.
    • Lack of horizontal scalability.
    • Complexity of interactions.
    • Dependence on physical hardware.

    Overall explanation:

    • Microservices involve multiple small services communicating with each other. This inter-service communication can introduce complexities and potential vulnerabilities if not properly secured.
    • One of the strengths of microservices is their ability to scale horizontally. Hence, lack of scalability isn't a primary security concern.
    • Microservices are typically decoupled from the physical hardware layer, focusing more on the application logic. Dependence on physical hardware isn't a primary security implication.
    • By design, microservices move away from monolithic architectures. This isn't a direct security concern for microservices.

    Tags: Microservices

Question 46

46. Which of the following practices emphasizes the distribution of incoming network traffic across multiple servers to ensure that no individual server is overwhelmed?

    Options:

    • Virtualization
    • Clustering
    • Load balancing
    • Data mirroring

    Overall explanation:

    • Load balancing is the process of distributing network traffic across several servers to prevent any single server from becoming a bottleneck, thereby ensuring optimum resource utilization, maximizing throughput, and reducing latency.
    • Clustering refers to the use of multiple servers that work together and can be seen as a single system. While clusters can provide fault tolerance, high availability, and scalability, their primary goal is not necessarily traffic distribution.
    • Data mirroring involves creating identical data sets in two or more locations. It provides data redundancy and is generally used for disaster recovery rather than traffic distribution.
    • Virtualization allows for running multiple operating systems on a single physical machine. It's primarily used to optimize server utilization but does not inherently distribute incoming network traffic across servers.

    Tags: Load Balancers

Question 47

47. What method of data backup involves routinely creating an exact copy of all data as a safeguard against loss or damage?

    Options:

    • Replication
    • Differential Backup
    • Incremental Backup
    • Load balancing

    Overall explanation:

    • Replication involves making routine copies of data. This ensures data safety and helps in quick recovery if original data is lost or damaged.
    • Incremental Backups don't make copies of all data. They select only files that have been changed since the last full or incremental backup. Replication is the copying of all data to protect it from loss.
    • Differential Backups don't make copies of all data. They select only files that have been changed since the last full backup. Replication is the copying of all data to protect it from loss.
    • Load balancing does not involve creating data copies for backup purposes. It's about evenly distributing workloads across multiple resources.

    Tags: Data Backups

Question 48

48. In your organization, you oversee the cybersecurity of workstations heavily used by the data analytics team. After a round of system updates, you've stepped into the "Maintain" phase of secure baselines. The operating system is loaded, and a template with essential configurations, patches, and security updates has been applied. Which of the following statements is the MOST appropriate next course of action to ensure ongoing system security?

    Options:

    • Instruct users to manage their own security updates, patches, and configurations moving forward.
    • Leave the workstations as they are until the next planned system update.
    • Redeem the remaining workstation resources to maximize computational performance.
    • Implement a routine schedule to keep the configurations, patches, and security up-to-date.

    Overall explanation:

    • Regularly reviewing, updating, and verifying the existing configurations, patches, and security updates is part of the "Maintain" phase in secure baselines. This helps ensure that any newly identified vulnerabilities are patched timely, and security configurations are kept updated as per the evolving threat landscape.
    • Leaving users to manage their own security updates can lead to irregular or neglected updates, potentially exposing the system to vulnerabilities.
    • While maximizing computational performance is important, redeeming the remaining workstation resources to maximize computational performance shouldn't be done at the expense of cybersecurity. Thus, this is not the appropriate next step when maintaining the secure baseline.
    • Not reviewing and updating system security until the next planned system update can leave the workstation exposed to newly arisen threats.

    Tags: Updates and Patches

Question 49

49. An organization recently upgraded its network infrastructure to improve performance and security. As part of the upgrade, they are implementing various security techniques to protect their computing resources and ensure data confidentiality and integrity. Which network device would be the most suitable for the organization to enhance network security by segmenting and isolating network traffic between devices in different departments?

    Options:

    • Hubs
    • Bridges
    • Routers
    • Switches

    Overall explanation:

    • Switches are designed to enhance network security by creating separate collision domains for devices connected to different switch ports. This segmentation prevents unnecessary exposure of data packets to devices outside the intended network segment. By isolating network traffic between devices in different departments, switches help prevent unauthorized access to sensitive data and reduce the potential for eavesdropping or interception of data. Switches make forwarding decisions based on MAC addresses, which allows for efficient and secure data transmission within each department's network segment.
    • While routers play a crucial role in network connectivity and traffic routing between different networks, they are not primarily designed for segmenting and isolating network traffic within a single network. Routers operate at the network layer (Layer 3) of the OSI model and are used to forward data between different IP subnets or networks. While they can offer some security features like access control lists (ACLs) and network address translation (NAT), routers are not the most suitable network device for isolating network traffic between devices within the same network.
    • Hubs are not suitable for enhancing network security or segmenting network traffic. Unlike switches, hubs operate at the physical layer (Layer 1) of the OSI model and simply broadcast incoming data packets to all devices connected to them. As a result, all devices connected to a hub receive all transmitted data, leading to potential security risks such as unauthorized access and eavesdropping. Hubs do not provide the segmentation and isolation capabilities required for securing computing resources in different departments.
    • Bridges are network devices used to connect two separate network segments, typically at the data link layer (Layer 2) of the OSI model. They are used to extend network coverage and reduce the size of broadcast domains. However, bridges are not the most suitable choice for enhancing network security and isolating network traffic between devices in different departments. They do not provide the advanced security features and efficient data transmission capabilities found in switches.

    Tags: Hubs and Switches

Question 50

50. Before providing access to a new cloud-based application, a company verifies the authenticity of its employees by asking them a series of knowledge-based questions, checking their government-issued IDs, and validating their current employment status. This process is an example of:

    Options:

    • Access delegation
    • Account recovery
    • Identity proofing
    • Two-factor authentication

    Overall explanation:

    • Identity proofing involves confirming the authenticity of an individual's claimed identity through various verification methods.
    • Access delegation is the granting of specific access rights or permissions to another user or entity.
    • Account recovery pertains to regaining access to an account after being locked out or forgetting credentials.
    • Two-factor authentication involves verifying identity using two separate factors, not necessarily confirming the claimed identity itself.

    Tags: Identity and Access Management (IAM)

Question 51

51. Kelly Innovations LLC is looking for an authentication method that generates a unique and temporary code to be used for verifying the identity of its remote employees. This code can be generated by a software application installed on the employees' smartphones. Which of the following BEST describes the authentication method the company is considering?

    Options:

    • Static passwords
    • Physical security keys
    • Software authentication tokens
    • Biometric authentication

    Overall explanation:

    • Software authentication tokens generate a dynamic and temporary code, often used for two-factor authentication, and can be produced by an app on a device.
    • Biometric authentication relies on unique physical or behavioral attributes, like fingerprints or voice patterns, for verification.
    • Static passwords are predefined passwords and do not change dynamically like the tokens.
    • While physical security keys offer strong security, they are hardware devices rather than software applications.

    Tags: Multifactor Authentication (MFA)

Question 52

52. A company's web application allows users to search for products using a search bar. The search query is then used in a SQL query to fetch relevant products from the database. Additionally, the web application allows users to leave comments on product pages. The comments are displayed on the website without any restrictions. The company's security team is concerned about the risk of SQL injection and XSS attacks. Which of the following security techniques should be applied to address these concerns effectively?

    Options:

    • Enabling HTTPS on the web server to secure data transmission
    • Limiting user access to product pages using strong authentication
    • Validating and sanitizing user input for both search and comments
    • Implementing a web application firewall (WAF) to monitor traffic

    Overall explanation:

    • Validating and sanitizing user input for both search queries and comments is a crucial security technique to prevent SQL injection (SQLi) and cross-site scripting (XSS) attacks.
      • For SQLi protection, input validation ensures that user-supplied search queries do not include malicious SQL commands that could manipulate the database or expose sensitive information.
      • For XSS protection, sanitization ensures that user-provided comments do not contain malicious scripts that could be executed on other users' browsers, potentially stealing sensitive information or performing unauthorized actions.
    • Implementing a web application firewall (WAF) is a valuable security measure to monitor and filter incoming and outgoing traffic to identify and block potential attacks. However, while a WAF can help in detecting and blocking certain types of attacks, it is not a substitute for proper input validation and sanitization. The best practice is to implement both a WAF and input validation/sanitization techniques for comprehensive security.
    • While enabling HTTPS is essential for securing data transmission between the web server and the clients, it does not directly address the concerns of SQL injection and cross-site scripting. HTTPS encrypts data during transmission, but it does not protect against attacks that exploit improper handling of user input in the application.

    Tags: SQL and XML Injections

Question 53

53. During the employee transition process, an IT department wants to ensure specific software services are adjusted appropriately. How can scripting facilitate this?

    Options:

    • Directly influences the hiring or firing decisions of HR.
    • Enables batch modifications for services based on employee status.
    • Manages interpersonal team dynamics during transitions and business peaks.
    • Oversees the mentoring process for new hires.

    Overall explanation:

    • Scripting can automate the process of enabling required services for new employees or disabling them for those leaving, ensuring consistent IT practices during transitions.
    • While scripting can streamline many IT-related processes, it doesn't play a role in HR's hiring or firing decisions.
    • Scripting automates technical tasks but doesn't influence human relationships or team dynamics.
    • Scripting aids in system management and automation, not in overseeing mentoring or training processes.

    Tags: Automation and Orchestration

Question 54

54. Which of the following statements best explains the importance of Threat Hunting in incident response?

    Options:

    • Threat Hunting is the process of identifying and classifying incidents based on their severity and impact to the organization.
    • Threat Hunting determines the individuals or groups responsible for the incident and helps in legal proceedings.
    • Threat Hunting involves removing the root cause of the incident from affected systems and networks to prevent its recurrence.
    • Threat Hunting allows the identifying and mitigating of security threats before they cause damage.

    Overall explanation:

    • Threat Hunting is a proactive approach to identifying and mitigating security threats before they cause damage or lead to incidents. It involves actively searching for signs of potential threats or malicious activities in the organization's network and systems, even when there is no known incident or alert triggered. Threat Hunting allows organizations to detect and address threats early, reducing the likelihood of successful attacks and minimizing potential damage.
    • While identifying the individuals or groups responsible for an incident might be valuable for legal proceedings, Threat Hunting is primarily focused on proactive detection and mitigation of security threats, not on attributing incidents to specific individuals.
    • Identifying and classifying incidents based on their severity and impact is typically part of the "Detection" phase in the incident response process. Threat Hunting goes beyond just identifying known incidents.
    • Removing the root cause of the incident to prevent recurrence is part of the "Eradication" phase in the incident response process, not the primary purpose of Threat Hunting.

    Tags: Threat Hunting

Question 55

55. Samantha, the IT head at PrimeTech Corp., recently conducted a security audit and found out that many employees use the password "Prime2023" for their official accounts. Concerned about the security implications, Samantha wants to improve the strength of passwords against potential attacks. What would be the MOST effective method to enhance the security of such passwords?

    Options:

    • Implement a captcha on the login page.
    • Ask employees to change passwords monthly.
    • Advise employees to use longer passwords.
    • Switch to a different hashing algorithm for storing passwords.

    Overall explanation:

    • A longer password with a mix of uppercase, lowercase, numbers, and symbols significantly improves security by increasing potential combinations.
    • While using a strong hashing algorithm is important, it doesn't guarantee the strength of the actual passwords used by employees.
    • While captchas can deter bots, they don't address the core issue of users choosing weak passwords.
    • While regular changes can help, without guidelines on password strength, users might still choose weak passwords.

    Tags: Password Attacks

Question 56

56. Which of the following statements BEST explains the importance of environmental variables in regard to vulnerability management?

    Options:

    • Environmental variables are parameters used in vulnerability scanning tools to assess the security posture of an organization's network and infrastructure
    • Environmental variables are factors that impact the physical security of an organization's premises
    • Environmental variables refer to the unique characteristics of an organization's infrastructure that can affect vulnerability assessments and risk analysis
    • Environmental variables are specific conditions that trigger an automated response when a vulnerability is detected in an organization's systems

    Overall explanation:

    • Environmental variables refer to the unique characteristics of an organization's infrastructure, business environment, and operational context that can impact vulnerability assessments and risk analysis. Understanding these variables is crucial to conducting effective vulnerability management and developing appropriate risk mitigation strategies.
    • While physical security factors are important, environmental variables in this context have a different focus.
    • While vulnerability scanning tools may use various parameters, environmental variables refer to different aspects related to an organization's infrastructure and business environment.
    • These variables are not specific conditions triggering automated responses; rather, they are factors related to an organization's infrastructure and business environment that impact vulnerability management processes.

    Tags: Risk Management

Question 57

57. Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of alert tuning?

    Options:

    • Monitoring only the external network perimeter.
    • Reducing false positives and improving accuracy.
    • Increasing the volume of alerts to cover all potential threats.
    • Transforming all alerts into high-priority ones.

    Overall explanation:

    • Alert tuning involves refining the criteria and thresholds for alerts to make them more accurate and actionable, which helps in reducing irrelevant or false positive alerts.
    • Not all alerts are of equal importance. Alert tuning helps in prioritizing and categorizing them based on their severity and potential impact.
    • Merely increasing the volume of alerts without ensuring their accuracy can overwhelm analysts and might not improve security posture.
    • Alert tuning is about refining the criteria of alerts, not limiting the scope of monitoring.

    Tags: Alerting and Monitoring

Question 58

58. As a security analyst, you are investigating a suspicious file activity incident. While examining metadata associated with different files, which of the following pieces of information is NOT typically presented in metadata?

    Options:

    • File's creator
    • The file extension of the file
    • File size
    • Date and time of last modification

    Overall explanation:

    • Metadata does NOT normally include the file's extension.
    • The name of the user who created the file is often included as part of the file's metadata. This is crucial information during an investigation of unauthorized file access or alteration.
    • Date and time of last modification is an integral part of metadata. This can help establish timelines of activity and identify any unexpected changes, which is crucial during an investigation.
    • File size is a common piece of metadata. This could potentially be useful in an investigation if, for example, a file's size significantly changes without a clear reason.

    Tags: Metadata

Question 59

59. Which of the following statements BEST explains the concept of Quarantining in responding to security incidents?

    Options:

    • Quarantining plays a significant role monitoring potential security breaches.
    • Quarantining is a method of identifying and assessing the severity of security incidents.
    • Quarantining isolates and contains infected devices to prevent further spread of threats.
    • Quarantining notifies security officials that a problem exists and must be addressed.

    Overall explanation:

    • Quarantine is essential for isolating and containing suspicious or infected devices to prevent further spread of threats in the network. By containing potential threats, organizations can mitigate the impact of security breaches and protect other devices from being compromised.
    • Quarantining is a response to an actual incident, not monitoring of potential incidents.
    • Quarantining takes place after the event has been identified and assessed.
    • Quarantining is a response, not notification.

    Tags:

Question 60

60. A software development company regularly releases software updates to its global customer base. Recently, some customers reported receiving unauthorized and potentially malicious software updates. The company wants to implement a security technique to ensure the authenticity and integrity of its software updates when delivered to customers.

    Options:

    • Multi-factor Authentication
    • Code Signing
    • Antivirus Scanning
    • Intrusion Detection System

    Overall explanation:

    • Code signing is a security technique that allows software developers to digitally sign their software updates before distribution. By using cryptographic signatures, code signing ensures the authenticity and integrity of the software updates. When customers receive the updates, their systems can verify the signature to confirm that the update came from a trusted source and that it has not been altered during transmission. Code signing is an effective way for the company to guarantee the legitimacy of its software updates and protect customers from potentially malicious or unauthorized modifications.
    • An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is a security solution that monitors network traffic and system activities to detect suspicious or malicious behavior. While IDS is valuable for identifying potential security incidents, it primarily focuses on network-level security and does not directly address the authenticity and integrity of software updates. Although it is essential for the company to have an IDS for its overall security infrastructure, it is not the most appropriate technique for ensuring the legitimacy of software updates.
    • Multi-factor authentication (MFA) is a security method that requires users to provide two or more forms of identification before accessing a system. MFA is commonly used to enhance user authentication and access control. However, it is not directly related to verifying the authenticity and integrity of software updates when delivered to customers. MFA does not address the process of ensuring that the software updates are coming from a trusted source and have not been tampered with during distribution. Therefore, while MFA is a valuable security measure, it is not the most suitable technique for the company's current objective.
    • Antivirus scanning is a security measure that involves using antivirus software to detect and remove malware from a system. While antivirus scanning is crucial for protecting computers from known malware, it does not directly address the authenticity and integrity of software updates. It focuses on identifying and removing existing malware but does not ensure that the software updates are legitimate and have not been tampered with during distribution. Therefore, antivirus scanning is not the most suitable technique for the company's objective.

    Tags: Application Security

Question 61

61. You were recently hired by a large software company that specializes in developing mobile applications. After receiving your username and password, the company requires you to use a smart card that uses radio frequency identification (RFID) to gain access to the company's development environment. Which type of multi-factor authentication (MFA) factor does the card represent?

    Options:

    • Something you know
    • Something you have
    • Somewhere you are
    • Something you are

    Overall explanation:

    • "Something you have" refers to authentication factors that involve possessing a physical object or token, such as a smart card, security token, or mobile device.
    • "Somewhere you are" refers to authentication factors that determine where you are geographically. This can be determined by a phone's geo-location, an IP address, or a unique identifier of the device you are using. In this scenario, having the card is the authentication factor.
    • "Something you know" refers to authentication factors that involve knowledge of a specific piece of information, such as a password or PIN. In the scenario, the authentication factor is based on the physical presence of the smart card at a specific location, not on any piece of information known to the user.
    • "Something you are" refers to authentication factors that involve biometric characteristics or behavioral traits, such as a fingerprint scan or facial recognition. The scenario does not involve any biometric authentication but rather location-based authentication using RFID technology.

    Tags: Multifactor Authentication (MFA)

Question 62

62. Which of the following is the BEST action a security professional would undertake to determine the order in which identified vulnerabilities should be addressed, based on potential impact and exploitation likelihood?

    Options:

    • Dynamic analysis
    • Threat intelligence gathering
    • Vulnerability prioritization
    • False positive assessment

    Overall explanation:

    • Vulnerability prioritization involves assessing the severity, exploitability, and potential impact of vulnerabilities to decide the order of their remediation. This ensures that critical risks are managed first, optimizing resource allocation.
    • False positive assessment involves reviewing and verifying alerts that a security tool flags as malicious, only to determine they are benign. While essential, it doesn't directly sort vulnerabilities by risk.
    • Threat intelligence gathering is the collection of data about potential threats from various sources. This provides context but doesn't directly offer a sequence for remediation.
    • Dynamic analysis involves evaluating software during its runtime to uncover vulnerabilities that might not be apparent when the software is not running. It's useful for finding issues but doesn't necessarily determine their importance.

    Tags: Vulnerability Management

Question 63

63. You are an IT security manager for an enterprise that deals with sensitive customer information and intellectual property. The organization is concerned about data loss through email and removable storage devices. As a security manager, you recommend implementing a Data Loss Prevention (DLP) solution to enhance security. Which of the following configurations would be the MOST effective way to implement Data Loss Prevention (DLP) for the given scenario?

    Options:

    • Configuring the DLP solution to scan all outbound emails and files leaving the organization for sensitive information.
    • Enabling the DLP solution to block all email attachments and USB storage devices to prevent data leakage.
    • Using the DLP solution solely for monitoring purposes without implementing any preventive measures.
    • Implementing DLP on endpoints with a focus on monitoring and preventing data transfers between internal users.

    Overall explanation:

    • Configuring the DLP solution to scan outbound emails and files leaving the organization allows it to identify sensitive information and prevent data loss effectively. By scanning outgoing communications, the DLP solution can detect and block any attempts to transmit sensitive data outside the corporate network, reducing the risk of data breaches while still allowing legitimate business activities to proceed.
    • While blocking all email attachments and USB storage devices might prevent data leakage, it can also severely disrupt legitimate business operations. Employees often need to share files through email attachments, and USB storage devices can be essential for productivity. Completely blocking these functionalities may hinder day-to-day operations without providing a more targeted security approach.
    • While monitoring internal data transfers is essential for some organizations, the primary concern stated in the scenario is data loss through email and removable storage devices. Focusing on internal transfers might not adequately address the main security issue at hand, which is preventing sensitive data from leaving the organization through email or removable storage.
    • While monitoring is a crucial aspect of DLP, the real value of DLP lies in its ability to prevent data loss incidents. Without implementing any preventive measures, the organization would miss the opportunity to stop data leakage in real-time and potentially expose sensitive information to unauthorized recipients.

    Tags: Data Loss Prevention (DLP)

Question 64

64. At Zenith Enterprises, the default password policy allows users to set passwords like "Zenith#21". Alex, a security consultant, believes this policy doesn't ensure robust password security. What is the BEST recommendation for Alex to ensure passwords are harder to decipher?

    Options:

    • Advise users to change their password if they receive a suspicious email.
    • Switch to token-based authentication.
    • Implement account lockouts after three failed login attempts.
    • Enforce 16 character minimum password length.

    Overall explanation:

    • The Center for Internet Security (CIS) emphasizes the importance of password length in its recommendations, acknowledging that the number of characters in a password is a critical factor in its security. As password length increases, the number of possible combinations for each character added grows exponentially, making brute-force attacks significantly more challenging and time-consuming. Consequently, a longer password is generally considered more secure than a shorter one, even if the shorter password contains a complex mixture of letters, numbers, and special characters.
    • Advising users to change their password if they receive a suspicious email targets phishing but doesn't address the fundamental issue of password complexity.
    • While tokens add an additional security layer, they don't directly address the issue of password complexity.
    • Implementing account lockouts after three failed login attempts can deter brute-force attacks but doesn't ensure users set complex passwords.

    Tags: Password Security

Question 65

65. Jamario, after consulting with Mary at Dion Training, decided to standardize the software environment across all company workstations. He wanted a consistent and reproducible setup that could easily be deployed on any new workstation. Which of the following is the BEST technique for Jamario to maintain this consistent setup?

    Options:

    • Routinely auditing system configurations.
    • Using configuration management tools.
    • Creating a standardized system image.
    • Implementing a patch management process.

    Overall explanation:

    • By using a standardized image, Jamario ensures every workstation starts with the same software setup, simplifying deployment and ensuring consistency.
    • Audits can detect deviations from the standard, but they reactively address inconsistencies rather than proactively ensuring uniform setup.
    • While implementing a patch management process ensures that all systems are updated with the latest security patches, it doesn't guarantee a standardized software setup across all new workstations.
    • Though they help in maintaining consistent configurations, using configuration management tools is more complex and might not be as efficient as deploying a standardized image for ensuring the initial setup is consistent across all workstations.

    Tags: Secure Baselines

Question 66

66. Which of the following statements BEST explains the importance of Training employees about the incident response process?

    Options:

    • Training helps identify and classify incidents and determine their impact to the organization.
    • Training ensures that incident response team members quickly react to an incident.
    • Training ensures that incident response team members are adequately compensated for their efforts during an incident.
    • Training makes it easier to prevent social engineering attacks so incidents never occur.

    Overall explanation:

    • Training is crucial in the incident response process because it ensures that incident response team members are knowledgeable and well-prepared to handle security incidents effectively and efficiently. Training equips them with the necessary skills, knowledge, and best practices to recognize, contain, eradicate, and recover from incidents.
    • Training to avoid social engineering is a good idea and may reduce incidents, but it is only one type of incident that may occur. Training ensures that the response team knows what to do if an event occurs.
    • While compensating incident response team members appropriately is essential for their dedication and efforts, it is not the primary purpose of training. Training focuses on building skills and knowledge to respond effectively to incidents.
    • Identifying and classifying incidents based on their severity and impact is part of the incident response process, but it is not directly related to the importance of training.

    Tags: Incident Response Training and Testing

Question 67

67. Which of the following BEST explains the importance of exceptions and exemptions in vulnerability management?

    Options:

    • Exceptions and exemptions allow systems to completely bypass all security policies for maximum efficiency.
    • Exceptions and exemptions are designed to eliminate the need for regular audits by providing an all-access pass to privileged users.
    • Exceptions and exemptions are official authorizations that allow specific deviations from established security policies or baseline controls.
    • Exceptions and exemptions permit organizations to ignore all known vulnerabilities without any consequences from internal procedures but don't affect government compliance.

    Overall explanation:

    • Exceptions and exemptions grant official permissions for particular deviations from security policies or baseline controls, occurring under controlled conditions and ongoing monitoring. They are typically employed when compliance with a specific control isn't feasible but where alternate measures can manage associated risks.
    • Although exceptions and exemptions allow for deviations from some security policies, they don't permit an entire bypass of all security measures. The process is managed, and the security impact is assessed and accepted.
    • Although exceptions and exemptions allow some deviations from specific security controls, they don't authorize organizations to ignore known vulnerabilities without mitigating actions or risk acceptances.
    • Exceptions and exemptions don't eliminate the necessity for regular audits. They provide authorized deviation from specific policies or controls but still require appropriate oversight.

    Tags: Risk Management Strategies

Question 68

68. Wonka Industries, a multinational company, is planning to open a new office in a different city. The company's IT team wants to perform determine if any new security requirements are needed for the new office. They want to ensure that the computing resources will be adequately protected against potential threats. Which of the following should Wonka Industries do to determine if new requirements are needed?

    Options:

    • Implementing biometric authentication for all employees
    • Installing CCTV cameras in all office areas
    • Conducting a site survey
    • Conducting a vulnerability assessment and penetration testing

    Overall explanation:

    • Performing a vulnerability assessment and penetration testing is a crucial security technique during a site survey. This process helps identify potential weaknesses and security flaws in the computing resources and the network infrastructure of the new office. By simulating real-world attacks, the IT team can assess how well the systems and applications withstand various threats. The results of this assessment will aid in developing a robust security plan to protect the computing resources effectively.
    • Site surveys are used to install Wi-Fi systems. They consider how signals might be blocked by things like solid walls and other forms of interference. They are used to determine where WAPs should be placed to provide the strongest, most reliable signal. While they may be used to ensure security equipment can communicate, they aren't needed until the system is being installed.
    • While implementing biometric authentication can enhance security, it is not directly related to a site survey. Biometric authentication is more of an access control measure and does not address potential vulnerabilities or risks specific to the new office's computing resources. A vulnerability assessment and penetration testing should be done before to determine whether this is needed at the new location.
    • Installing CCTV cameras is a valid security measure for physical security, but it doesn't directly address computing resource security during a site survey. It mainly helps with monitoring and recording activities within the office premises, but it doesn't assess the security posture of the IT infrastructure. A vulnerability assessment and penetration testing should be done before to determine whether this is needed at the new location.

    Tags: Vulnerability Scans

Question 69

69. A financial institution wants to reduce the risk of unauthorized access during non-operational hours. The IT department suggests a control that only allows users to access the company's mainframe between 9:00 AM to 5:00 PM on weekdays. Which security measure can achieve this goal?

    Options:

    • Network segmentation
    • Time-of-day restrictions
    • Session timeouts
    • Data loss prevention (DLP)

    Overall explanation:

    • Setting specific time frames for access ensures that systems are only available during designated times, reducing unauthorized access risks outside of those times.
    • Network segmentation divides the network into smaller segments, but it doesn't restrict access based on time.
    • DLPs focuses on monitoring and controlling data transfer, not time-based access controls.
    • While session timeouts limit the duration of a user's active session, it does not confine access to specific times of day.

    Tags: Access Control Models

Question 70

70. Horizon Corp recently implemented a security policy that forces employees to change their passwords every 30 days. However, IT has noticed a pattern where some employees change their password multiple times in quick succession to revert back to their original, familiar password. Which security measure should Horizon Corp implement to counter this behavior?

    Options:

    • Increase password complexity requirements.
    • Mandate regular security training.
    • Deploy multifactor authentication.
    • Implement a minimum password age.

    Overall explanation:

    • By enforcing a minimum age for passwords, employees are restricted from changing their passwords multiple times in quick succession, ensuring they can't quickly cycle back to their preferred passwords.
    • Making passwords more complex can deter password reuse but does not prevent rapid password cycling.
    • While deploying multifactor authentication adds a layer of security, it doesn’t specifically address the behavior of rapidly changing passwords.
    • While informative, training sessions don't provide a technical barrier against the rapid changing of passwords.

    Tags: Password Security

Question 71

71. Which of the following is NOT true about the importance of Security Information and Event Management (SIEM)?

    Options:

    • SIEM systems provide real-time analysis of security alerts generated by applications and network hardware.
    • SIEM systems can create and maintain a database of an organization's IT equipment.
    • SIEM systems can aid in the procurement and asset management of secure software systems.
    • SIEM systems provide a unified view of an organization's IT security by collecting and aggregating log data.

    Overall explanation:

    • SIEM systems are not primarily used for software procurement or asset management. Their primary purpose is to provide real-time analysis of security alerts and to offer a holistic view of an organization's security scenario. They are not involved in tasks such as procurement and management of hardware.
    • One of the critical roles of SIEM is the real-time monitoring and analysis of security alerts across an organization's network. SIEM systems collect and aggregate log data from an array of sources within an organization’s IT infrastructure, providing a centralized view of the security landscape.
    • SIEM systems can indeed create and maintain a record of an organization's IT equipment as a part of their comprehensive data collection.

    Tags: Security Information and Event Management (SIEM)

Question 72

72. Which of the following BEST emphasizes why maintaining a chain of custody pivotal in digital forensics investigations?

    Options:

    • It provides legal teams with a roadmap for case strategy.
    • It allocates budgetary resources for the forensic investigation.
    • It determines the relevance of the evidence to the case.
    • It ensures the integrity and authenticity of evidence.

    Overall explanation:

    • The chain of custody chronicles the handling and storage of evidence, verifying its authenticity and that it hasn't been tampered with.
    • Budgetary concerns are separate and not directly linked to the chain of custody, which pertains to evidence handling.
    • Though the evidence affects case strategies, the chain of custody specifically deals with documenting evidence handling, not strategic planning.
    • While the evidence's relevance is crucial, the chain of custody doesn't ascertain this.

    Tags: Digital Forensic Procedures

Question 73

73. Things have not been going well as Massive Dynamics, a cloud providing company. They had been using a governance structure where diverse groups of employees worked together to make decisions and implement policies.  However, this structure has led to a confusing mix of policies and, most importantly, a confused security strategy. Following a massive data breach, the Massive Dynamics CEO has restructured the company.  Decision making and policy implementation will now be in the hands of a group of experienced individuals from outside the company. This group will work with the CEO to set policies and make decisions. What governance structure does Massive Dynamics now have?

    Options:

    • Committee
    • Board
    • Centralized
    • Government

    Overall explanation:

    • The Board of Directors, also known as the Board, is responsible for overseeing the overall direction and governance of the organization. Part of their responsibility includes setting and approving the organization's security strategy, ensuring it aligns with the business objectives, and providing guidance to ensure effective security measures are in place.
    • A centralized entity refers to a single centralized authority within an organization responsible for making decisions and implementing policies. While this concept can be applied to certain aspects of security management, it is not the primary entity responsible for overseeing the organization's security strategy.
    • A committee is a group of individuals assigned specific tasks or responsibilities within an organization. While committees may play a role in executing certain security initiatives, they are not primarily responsible for overseeing the organization's security strategy at a higher level.
    • A government entity is a governmental organization or agency that may have regulatory oversight over specific industries or sectors. While they may provide guidelines or regulations related to security, they are not directly responsible for overseeing the internal security strategy of a private organization like SecureTech Solutions.

    Tags: Governance and Compliance

Question 74

74. Which of the following statements BEST describes the role of a data processor in data governance?

    Options:

    • Directly responsible for classifying data and defining access permissions.
    • Sets the strategic direction and policies for organizational data management.
    • Assesses and manages risks related to data security and compliance.
    • Processes personal data for controllers and ensures implementation of security measures.

    Overall explanation:

    • The processor is tasked with handling personal data in accordance with the controller's directions and must secure the data as per the established standards.
    • While the processor may contribute to assessing and managing risks related to data security and compliance, it is not their primary function; instead, it is more closely related to the roles of security and compliance committees.
    • Directly responsible for classifying data and defining access permissions typically fall under the purview of the data owner, not the processor.
    • Setting the strategic direction and policies for organizational data management is generally associated with the data owner or governance board, not the processor.

    Tags: Data Ownership

Question 75

75. Kelly Innovations LLC is in the process of selecting a new vendor for their cloud storage solutions. As part of the selection process, the IT manager, Jamario, reviews the potential vendor's past financial stability, customer reviews, and history of cybersecurity incidents. Which aspect of the vendor selection process is Jamario emphasizing?

    Options:

    • Service-level agreement
    • Due diligence !!!!!!!!!!
    • Non-disclosure agreement
    • Supply chain analysis

    Overall explanation:

    • A non-disclosure agreement is a legally binding contract that establishes a confidential relationship between a provider and the entity seeking services. It ensures that certain information remains confidential.
    • A service-level agreement is a contract between a service provider and the end user that defines the level of service expected from the service provider, not the evaluation process itself.
    • Due diligence involves a comprehensive appraisal of a vendor to establish its assets and liabilities and evaluate its commercial potential, especially in terms of financial stability, reputation, and past track record.
    • A supply chain analysis focuses on examining the flow of materials, information, and finances as they move through the supply chain. While important, it doesn't cover the broad review inherent in due diligence.

    Tags: Vendor Selection and Monitoring

Question 76

76. Which of the following types of penetration tests provides the tester with some information about the target system, like certain architecture details or user credentials, but not comprehensive insights into its inner workings?

    Options:

    • Black box
    • Boundary
    • Grey box
    • White box

    Overall explanation:

    • For a grey box test, the tester has limited information about the target system. This might include specific details about its architecture or certain user credentials. This type of test represents a middle ground, providing a blend of both internal and external perspectives on potential vulnerabilities.
    • Boundary testing focuses on the system's input and output data limits. Testers will try to use values at, just below, or just above these boundaries to see if the system behaves unexpectedly or reveals vulnerabilities.
    • In a white box test, the tester possesses complete knowledge of the target environment, including its architecture, design, and source code. It allows for an in-depth examination of the system to find vulnerabilities that might be overlooked in other test types.
    • A black box test is executed without any prior knowledge of the target environment. The tester approaches the system from an outsider's perspective, mimicking an external attacker with no insight into the system's design or functionality.

    Tags: Pentesting

Question 77

77. What part of a business process analysis (BPA) for mission essential functions provides a detailed, step-by-step description of the procedural tasks performed?

    Options:

    • Outputs
    • Inputs
    • Hardware
    • Process flow

    Overall explanation:

    • In a BPA, process flow details each operational step, describing how the mission essential function is systematically executed.
    • While inputs are crucial for starting the process, they do not constitute the sequential operational guide that is the process flow.
    • Outputs relate to the final products or data produced by the function, which is the result of the process flow but not the description of the steps themselves.
    • Hardware identifies the physical infrastructure used in the process, not the step-by-step procedural narrative.

    Tags: BPA

Question 78

78. Within the IT department, Sarah has been designated to oversee the security measures for the new data management platform. She is accountable for the regular review of security protocols and responding to any breaches or vulnerabilities that may arise. Sarah's role would be BEST described by which of the following terms?

    Options:

    • Risk assessor
    • Risk register
    • Risk owner
    • Risk indicator

    Overall explanation:

    • Sarah exemplifies a risk owner, as she is tasked with the ongoing management and mitigation of risks pertaining to the data management platform.
    • A risk assessor might be a role that Sarah takes on when evaluating risks, but it does not encapsulate her comprehensive management responsibilities.
    • A risk indicator would be a metric Sarah might monitor to assess risk levels, not her position.
    • A risk register would be the tool Sarah uses to track and assess the risks, not her role.

    Tags: Risk Management

Question 79

79. Dion Training is considering a collaboration with a new IT service vendor. To ensure compliance and adherence to industry standards, Dion Training wishes to see verifiable evaluations of the vendor's security controls and practices. Which of the following would provide Dion Training with insights into the vendor's own internal evaluations of their security measures?

    Options:

    • Evidence of internal audits
    • External penetration test reports
    • Customer testimonials
    • Regulatory compliance certificates

    Overall explanation:

    • Evidence of Internal Audits showcases a vendor's proactive approach to maintaining and enhancing their security measures. Such audits are conducted internally and reflect a rigorous self-assessment of security practices, vulnerabilities, and control mechanisms. By reviewing these, a company can gain insights into the vendor's commitment to security, how they address potential weaknesses, and their overall cybersecurity health. This evidence can be instrumental in gauging the reliability and trustworthiness of the vendor's internal security framework.
    • Regulatory compliance certificates indicate compliance with specific regulations but don't provide detailed insights into internal evaluations.
    • External penetration test reports show the results of external entities testing the vendor's defenses, not the vendor's own evaluations. While customer testimonials may provide feedback on the vendor's performance, they don't offer insights into the vendor's internal evaluations of their security measures.

    Tags: Audits and Assessments

Question 80

80. To stay updated with changing threats and vulnerabilities, which of the following assessment methods BEST emphasizes periodic evaluations?

    Options:

    • One-time risk assessment
    • Continuous risk assessment
    • Ad hoc risk assessment
    • Recurring risk assessment

    Overall explanation:

    • Recurring risk assessment involves conducting risk assessments at regular intervals to adapt to changing threats and vulnerabilities over time.
    • Continuous risk assessment involves ongoing and real-time monitoring of risks as part of the organization's daily operations. It aims to quickly identify and address emerging risks. While it is beneficial, it may not specifically involve periodic assessments at regular intervals.
    • Ad hoc risk assessment refers to conducting risk assessments on an as-needed basis or when specific events trigger the need for assessment. It is not specifically focused on keeping up with changing threats and vulnerabilities.
    • One-time risk assessment is conducted only once and does not involve periodic evaluations of risks. It may be suitable for specific projects or situations but is not focused on continuous monitoring.

    Tags: Risk Assessment Frequency

Question 81

81. In a compliance workshop at Dion Training, a team is discussing the ramifications of not adhering to industry standards and data protection laws. Which of the following outcomes of non-adherence would result in Dion Training having to pay money?

    Options:

    • Fines
    • Reputational damage
    • Sanctions
    • Loss of license

    Overall explanation:

    • In the context of non-compliance, fines are financial penalties imposed by regulatory authorities for failing to adhere to specific rules, regulations, or laws. Organizations that do not comply with relevant regulations may be subject to fines as a punitive measure.
    • While sanctions can be a consequence of non-compliance in certain contexts, they typically refer to penalties imposed for violations of international laws or trade agreements rather than financial penalties related to non-compliance with regulations.
    • Reputational damage refers to the harm or negative perception that an organization may suffer due to its actions or non-compliance. While it can be a consequence of non-compliance, it does not directly involve financial penalties.
    • The loss of a license refers to the revocation of an organization's permission to operate or conduct specific business activities. While it can be a consequence of severe non-compliance, it is not directly related to the financial penalties imposed by regulatory authorities.

    Tags: Governance and Compliance

Question 82

82. Carla's job at Dion Training involves properly collecting, storing, and analyzing the data according to her supervisor's directions. What role does Carla have?

    Options:

    • Data subject
    • Data controller
    • Data custodian
    • Data processor

    Overall explanation:

    • A data processor is an entity that processes personal data on behalf of the data controller. In this scenario, Carla is processing the data at the direction of her supervisor, who is the data controller. This means she would be considered the data processor.
    • The data controller is the entity that determines the purposes and means of processing personal data. In this scenario, Carla's supervisor is the data controller since the supervisor determines what is done with the data. Carla only follows the supervisor's directions.
    • A data custodian is typically an individual or entity responsible for managing the system where the data is stored. The data custodian would be unlikely to be analyzing data.
    • A data subject is an individual to whom the personal data belongs, and they have certain rights regarding the processing of their data. The subject doesn't play a role in the storage, collecting, and analyzing of data.

    Tags: Data Ownership

Question 83

83. Which set of standards and guidelines is developed by NIST and specifies requirements for cryptographic modules used within federal computer systems in the United States?

    Options:

    • NIST Special Publication 800-63
    • FIPS
    • ISO/IEC 27001
    • PCI DSS

    Overall explanation:

    • FIPS (Federal Information Processing Standards) are standards that provide important guidelines and requirements for cryptography used to secure federal information systems, except those related to national security.
    • While ISO/IEC 27001 is an important standard for information security management systems, it does not set specific requirements for cryptographic modules within federal computer systems.
    • PCI DSS relates to the protection of cardholder data and is not focused on the cryptographic requirements for federal information systems.
    • This publication provides guidelines for digital identity but does not specify requirements for cryptographic modules within federal systems.

    Tags: Standards

Question 84

84. Which of the following is a primary consideration when addressing local/regional legal implications when evaluating an organization's security compliance?

    Options:

    • Automating the compliance monitoring process across all regions.
    • Attestation of compliance for all global branches of an organization.
    • Understanding specific jurisdictional regulations and requirements.
    • Assessing global data breach notification timelines.

    Overall explanation:

    • Different local and regional jurisdictions often have unique laws and mandates related to data protection and security, making it crucial for organizations to be knowledgeable about them to maintain compliance.
    • Attestation is about confirming compliance understanding, but local/regional implications primarily involve adhering to specific geographical rules or laws.
    • Automation can help with compliance tasks, but when considering local/regional legal implications, the primary concern is understanding and following specific area-based regulations.
    • While understanding global implications can be vital, the focus of local/regional considerations is on specific area-based regulations.

    Tags: Governance considerations

Question 85

85. At DIonTraining, the risk management team has completed a comprehensive risk assessment and identified potential risks across various departments. To ensure proactive risk management and response, they want to establish a system for continuously monitoring and tracking these identified risks.

    Which element of the risk management process should the risk management team implement to monitor and track the identified risks over time?

    Options:

    • Risk reporting
    • Risk register
    • Business impact analysis
    • Risk assessment

    Overall explanation:

    • The risk register is a comprehensive record that lists all identified risks, their potential impacts, assigned risk owners, and current risk status. It serves as a central repository for tracking and monitoring risks over time.
    • Risk assessment is the initial step in the risk management process, involving the identification, analysis, and evaluation of potential risks.
    • Risk reporting involves the regular communication and documentation of identified risks, their potential impact, and risk management strategies to relevant stakeholders.
    • Business impact analysis assesses the potential consequences of specific risks on critical business functions, helping prioritize risk response efforts.

    Tags: Risk Register

Question 86

86. In the context of compliance monitoring, which of the following does "due diligence/care" refer to?

    Options:

    • Taking steps to meet compliance requirements.
    • Reviewing third-party vendor agreements.
    • Automated compliance checks.
    • Conducting internal audits on a regular basis.

    Overall explanation:

    • Due diligence/care refers to the diligent and proactive efforts made by an organization to meet and maintain compliance requirements. This includes implementing necessary policies, procedures, and controls to align with regulatory mandates.
    • Conducting internal audits is a process where the organization assesses its own practices, processes, and controls to ensure compliance with relevant regulations. Internal audits are systematic and objective evaluations conducted by internal personnel or teams.
    • Automated compliance checks involve using software tools and systems to monitor and evaluate an organization's adherence to regulatory requirements. These tools automatically scan and analyze various aspects of the organization's operations to identify potential compliance issues.
    • Reviewing third-party vendor agreements is part of the vendor management process. It involves carefully examining the contractual agreements with external vendors to verify that they comply with required security and privacy standards.

    Tags: Compliance

Question 87

87. Every month, Sasha from Kelly Innovations LLC reviews the company's firewall logs, intrusion detection system outputs, and other security tool logs. She compiles a document detailing trends, potential threats, and recommended actions, which she presents to the senior management. Which of the following types of reports BEST describes the one Sasha producing for the senior management?

    Options:

    • Recurring report
    • Policy review
    • Threat intelligence briefing
    • Incident report

    Overall explanation:

    • A recurring report is a report generated at regular intervals, such as weekly, monthly, or quarterly, to keep stakeholders updated on ongoing security metrics, trends, and concerns.
    • A policy review is a periodic assessment of the organization's security policies to ensure they remain current and effective.
    • A threat intelligence briefing is a specialized report highlighting current and emerging threats, often sourced from external threat intelligence providers.
    • An incident report is a detailed account of a specific security breach or event, outlining what occurred, its impact, and the steps taken in response.

    Tags:

Question 88

88. What security awareness practice involves conducting simulated email attacks to educate employees about recognizing and responding to phishing attempts?

    Options:

    • Phishing campaigns
    • Anomalous behavior recognition
    • Reporting and monitoring
    • User guidance and training

    Overall explanation:

    • This security awareness practice involves conducting simulated email attacks, often referred to as phishing simulations, to educate employees about recognizing and responding to phishing attempts. In these simulated attacks, employees receive fake phishing emails designed to mimic real-world phishing attempts. The goal is to test employees' ability to identify phishing emails, avoid falling for deception, and report suspicious messages.
    • User guidance and training in security awareness refer to the process of providing employees with information, policies, and best practices related to cybersecurity. This practice includes educating employees through policy handbooks, training sessions, and situational awareness exercises to promote a security-conscious culture.
    • Anomalous behavior recognition is a security awareness practice that focuses on educating employees about recognizing unusual or unexpected behavior that may indicate a security threat. It involves teaching employees to identify risky, unexpected, or unintentional actions that deviate from normal patterns of behavior within the organization.
    • Reporting and monitoring are key aspects of security awareness practices. It involves encouraging employees to report suspicious activities, potential security incidents, or phishing attempts. Monitoring is performed to assess the effectiveness of security awareness initiatives and to identify potential weaknesses or areas for improvement.

    Tags: Phishing

Question 89

89. Bluebird Technologies has hired a penetration tester. In the test she will attempt to enter the building by using a fake ID and by piggybacking at the entrance. What type of penetration testing will she be doing?

    Options:

    • Partially known environment
    • Known environment
    • Physical
    • Integrated

    Overall explanation:

    • Physical penetration testing involves evaluating an organization's physical security measures, such as access controls, surveillance systems, and security protocols, to identify vulnerabilities and potential breaches.
    • Integrated penetration testing refers to a comprehensive approach that combines different types of penetration tests to assess an organization's overall security posture. While physical security may be part of the assessment, it is not the main focus of this type of testing.
    • Penetration testing in a known environment means that a significant amount of information has been given to the tester. This can include passwords, usernames, and other information.
    • There is no indication in the scenario that the tester has been given information Penetration testing in a partially known environment means that a some information has been given to the tester. There is no indication in the scenario that the tester has been given information

    Tags: Pentest

Question 90

90. At Kelly Innovations LLC, Sasha received an unexpected call from someone claiming to be from the IT department. The caller asked her to confirm her username and password for a "system upgrade." Unsure, Sasha hesitated and asked the caller to provide some form of identification or a callback number. Which of the following terms BEST describes the scenario Sasha encountered?

    Options:

    • Vulnerability Assessment
    • Phishing
    • Social Engineering
    • Tailgating

    Overall explanation:

    • Social Engineering manipulates individuals into divulging confidential information or performing specific actions, often for malicious purposes. The caller attempted to deceive Sasha to gain her credentials.
    • Tailgating involves unauthorized individuals physically following authorized personnel into secure areas.
    • Vulnerability Assessment is a method to evaluate the security posture of a system, not a manipulation technique.
    • While a form of social engineering, phishing typically involves deceptive emails or websites, not direct phone calls.

    Tags: Social Engineering