Sec+ Practice Test 3

Question 1

1. Kelly Innovations LLC is keen on adopting technology to ensure the integrity and transparency of its financial transactions. They are looking for a solution where each transaction record is secured using cryptography, and the hash value of one record is used in the hash calculation of the next. Which of the following technologies would be MOST suitable for this requirement?

   Options:

   • Public key infrastructure (PKI)
   • Digital watermarking
   • Blockchain
   • Symmetric encryption

   Overall explanation:

   • Blockchain employs an expanding list of transactional records, each referred to as a block, and each block validates the hash of the previous one. This process ensures that historical transactions remain untampered with.
   • This form of encryption uses a single key to both encrypt and decrypt information, but it does not inherently create a linked chain of records as described.
   • Digital watermarking embeds information in digital content but doesn't deal with securing transaction records in the manner described.
   • While PKI is a framework of encryption and cybersecurity that protects communications between the server (your website) and the client (the users), it doesn't work with transactional records like blockchain does.

   Tags: Blockchain

Question 2

2. In the process of deploying a new software application within Kelly Innovations LLC, the IT team identified that a certain module wouldn't function unless another software was already installed. Which of the following BEST describes this situation?

   Options:

   • Encountering a software dependency.
   • Allowing unrestricted user access.
   • Running a legacy application.
   • Facing a compatibility issue.

   Overall explanation:

   • Software dependencies arise when one software or module requires another software or service to function correctly. In this case, the module's reliance on another software to operate signifies a dependency.
   • Allowing unrestricted user access pertains to user permissions and access controls, and is not directly related to software functionality or interoperability.
   • While facing a compatibility issue could be related to software dependencies, a compatibility issue is typically broader and deals with software not working due to system requirements, different software versions, or other factors.
   • Legacy applications are older software versions or systems still in use, often because the user prefers the old version over a new version, or because the newer version is not compatible with the user's hardware or operating system. It's not directly related to the reliance of one software on another.

   Tags: Technical Implications of Changes

Question 3

3. Dion Training is implementing a solution to secure communication between their internal servers and external clients. They require an encryption protocol that provides secure communication over the internet. Which of the following would be the BEST choice for this requirement?

   Options:

   • SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol)
   • FTP (File Transfer Protocol)
   • TLS (Transport Layer Security)
   • L2TP (Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol)

   Overall explanation:

   • TLS is a cryptographic protocol designed to provide communications security over a computer network, such as the internet. It is widely used for web browsers and other applications that require data to be securely exchanged over a network.
   • L2TP is a tunneling protocol used to support virtual private networks, but it does not provide encryption on its own and is often used with IPsec.
   • FTP is used for transferring files, and while it can work securely with SSL/TLS (FTPS), it's not primarily known for encrypted communications.
   • SNMP is primarily used for managing devices on IP networks, but it is not designed to provide end-to-end encryption for communications.

   Tags: SSL-TLS

Question 4

4. Reginald, an IT Manager, is the owner of a file on a server and wants to grant his colleagues access to the file. He is the only one who can decide who is allowed to access to the file and what actions they can perform on it. Which authorization model is being used in this scenario?

   Options:

   • DAC
   • RBAC
   • MAC
   • ABAC

   Overall explanation:

   • Discretionary Access Control (DAC) is an authorization model where the owner of the resource decides who is allowed to access it.
   • Mandatory Access Control (MAC) is an authorization model where access to resources is determined by a set of rules defined by a central authority.
   • Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) is an authorization model that assigns permissions to roles, rather than individual users.
   • Attribute Based Access Control (ABAC) determines access through a combination of contexts and system wide attributes.

   Tags: Access Control Models

Question 5

5. What type of encryption only affects a section of a storage device?

   Options:

   • Partition encryption
   • File-level encryption
   • Full-disk encryption
   • Database encryption

   Overall explanation:

   • Partition encryption matches the encryption affects a section of a storage device.
   • Full-disk encryption encrypts all data on a physical or logical disk, not just a specific section of a storage device.
   • Database encryption encrypts data at the database level, not a specific partition.
   • File-level encryption encrypts individual files or folders on a storage device, not a specific partition.

   Tags: Data States

Question 6

6. Dion Training has implemented a Zero Trust model. Which of the following components of the data plane is responsible for the user or device being verified before it interacts with the network?

   Options:

   • Policy administrator
   • Policy Enforcement Point !!!!!
   • Policy engine
   • Subject

   Overall explanation:

   • The subject refers to the entity (user or device) that is requesting access to a resource, which needs to be authenticated before being granted access.
   • The policy enforcement point is responsible for enforcing the access control decisions made by the policy engine.
   • The policy administrator is responsible for defining and managing the access control policies used by the policy engine.
   • The policy engine is responsible for making access control decisions based on pre-defined policies and contextual information about the subject/system.

   Tags: Zero Trust

Question 7

7. Which of the following BEST enhances the security by exponentially increasing possible combinations?

   Options:

   • Key clustering
   • Hash collision
   • Block cipher mode
   • Longer key length

   Overall explanation:

   • A longer key length, when increased even by a single bit, can double the number of possible key combinations, thereby exponentially increasing security against brute-force attacks and making it more difficult for attackers to guess the correct key.
   • Key clustering is when two different keys produce the same ciphertext from the same plaintext. It's a phenomenon in cryptography but doesn't directly showcase the security benefits of longer key lengths.
   • Hash collision occurs when two different inputs produce the same hash output. It's a concern in cryptographic hashing but doesn't directly relate to the exponential security increase of longer key lengths.
   • Block cipher mode defines how to apply a cipher's encryption algorithm to blocks of data. It doesn't illustrate the principle of increasing security with longer key lengths.

   Tags: Password Security

Question 8

8. Which of the following control types BEST describes the use of surveillance cameras to record and identify malicious activities occurring around a facility after they've happened?

   Options:

   • Detective Control
   • Directive Control
   • Corrective Control
   • Deterrent Control

   Overall explanation:

   • A detective control is designed to detect and react to incidents that have occurred. Surveillance cameras don't prevent the incident but help in identifying the events after they've happened.
   • A deterrent control is intended to discourage potential attackers from malicious activities. While surveillance cameras might act as a mild deterrent, their primary function is to detect incidents post-factum.
   • Corrective controls act to bring the system back to its desired state after an incident. They don't typically involve detecting the incident itself.
   • Directive controls guide consistent behavior or actions within an organization. They don't detect events after they've happened.

   Tags: Security Control Types

Question 9

9. Dion Training is planning to expand its online services, including launching multiple subdomains for different courses. They want a single certificate that can secure all these subdomains. Which type of certificate should Dion Training consider?

   Options:

   • Wildcard certificate
   • Third-party certificate
   • CSR (Certificate Signing Request)
   • Self-signed certificate

   Overall explanation:

   • Dion Training should consider a wildcard certificate, which can be used to secure multiple subdomains under a single main domain. It offers a convenient and cost-effective way to manage certificates for subdomains.
   • While it is signed and verified by an external CA, a third-party certificate doesn't specify the number or type of domains covered and hence wouldn't inherently secure multiple subdomains.
   • A CSR is a formal message to a CA for a digital certificate. It's a request, not a type of certificate.
   • A self-signed certificate is signed by its creator and doesn't inherently cover multiple domains or subdomains.

   Tags: Digital Certificates

Question 10

10. Which of the following statements BEST describes Adaptive Identity within the Zero Trust framework?

    Options:

    • Manages data transmission after access is granted.
    • Dynamically adjusts access based on user behavior and context.
    • Sets up zones to contain potential threats.
    • Establishes and references strict access policies.

    Overall explanation:

    • Adaptive identity in the context of Zero Trust means that the system constantly evaluates the user's behavior and the context of their requests to ensure they still warrant the access level they've been granted. If suspicious behavior is detected, access can be modified or revoked in real-time.
    • Setting up zones to contain potential threats involves segmenting the network or creating isolated environments, often called "zones", to contain potential threats or limit the exposure of critical assets. This strategy can prevent lateral movement in the case of a breach.
    • Establishing and referencing strict access policies involves creating and enforcing specific rules and guidelines on who can access what resources under which conditions. It's a foundational element of any security framework, ensuring only authorized entities gain access to sensitive data.
    • Managing data transmission after access is granted refers to how data is handled or transmitted once a user has been authenticated and granted access. It might involve data encryption, segmentation, or other data protection mechanisms during transmission.

    Tags: Zero Trust

Question 11

11. Which of the following control types BEST describes the capability of systems to automatically revert to their last known good configuration following a power outage or system disruption?

    Options:

    • Detective Control
    • Directive Control
    • Corrective Control
    • Deterrent Control

    Overall explanation:

    • A corrective control acts to bring a system or environment back to its desired state after an incident or anomaly has been detected.
    • Detective controls identify and react to incidents after they've happened. They don't necessarily restore the system to a desired state.
    • Directive controls guide actions or behavior within an organization but don't automatically revert system states.
    • Deterrent controls primarily discourage unauthorized or unwanted behavior and don't act to restore system states.

    Tags: Security Control Types

Question 12

12. Which of the following motivations refers to the act of threatening to expose someone's secrets unless they comply with certain demands?

    Options:

    • Blackmail
    • Service disruption
    • Data exfiltration
    • Revenge

    Overall explanation:

    • Blackmail refers to the act of threatening to expose or harm someone unless they comply with certain demands. Blackmail can be done for financial, personal, or ideological reasons.
    • Service disruption refers to the act of impairing or interrupting the availability or functionality of a system or network. Service disruption can be done as a form of protest, sabotage, or extortion, or to create a diversion.
    • Data exfiltration refers to the act of stealing sensitive or confidential data from a system or network. The data that is stolen can be later used for financial gain, espionage, blackmail, or other purposes.
    • Revenge refers to the act of harming a person or the person's reputation as a result of a perceived wrong or injury. Revenge can be done for personal, emotional, or ideological reasons.

    Tags: Threat Actor Motivations

Question 13

13. Which of the following is the BEST type of backup that allows for the rapid redeployment of an OS without requiring reinstallation of third-party software, patches, and configurations?

    Options:

    • File-level backup
    • Differential backup
    • Incremental backup
    • Image backup

    Overall explanation:

    • An image backup duplicates an OS installation, either from a physical hard disk or a VM's virtual hard disk. It offers a quick means to redeploy the system without reinstalling software and settings
    • Differential backup saves all changes made since the last full backup but doesn't create a complete system image like the image backup.
    • Incremental backup saves only the changes made since the last backup, not the entire system configuration or OS installation.
    • File-level backup involves copying individual files and directories. It does not duplicate the entire OS installation like an image backup.

    Tags: Data Backups

Question 14

14. What is the primary difference between a service disruption and a blackmail motivation for threat actors?

    Options:

    • Target of attack
    • Type of attack
    • Impact on the victim
    • Reason for attack

    Overall explanation:

    • The primary difference between a service disruption and a blackmail motivation for threat actors is the impact on the victim. A service disruption motivation drives a threat actor to reduce the availability or functionality of a system or network, such as launching denial-of-service attacks, defacing websites, or deleting files.
    • A blackmail motivation drives a threat actor to extort money or other benefits from the victim by threatening to expose or harm their data, reputation, or assets.
    • Target of attack is not the primary difference between a service disruption and a blackmail motivation for threat actors, as both can target individuals, organizations, or governments.
    • Type of attack is not the primary difference between a service disruption and a blackmail motivation for threat actors, as both can involve attacks, such as ransomware, distributed denial-of-service, or phishing.
    • Reason for attack is not the primary difference between a service disruption and a blackmail motivation for threat actors, as both can have reasons, such as attention, amusement, or financial gain.

    Tags: DoS Attack

Question 15

15. Which of the following hardening techniques can help protect systems or devices from attacks by installing software like a firewall or  antivirus directly on user devices to report and block potential attacks?

    Options:

    • Patching
    • Installation of endpoint protection
    • Changing Default Passwords
    • Least Privilege

    Overall explanation:

    • Installation of endpoint protection includes installing antivirus, anti-malware, and firewall software on systems or devices. This software helps protect systems and devices from known vulnerabilities.
    • Default password changes is a hardening technique that can help prevent some password attacks on systems and devices. This is done by changing the default or factory-set passwords that may be easily cracked by automated tools or dictionaries because they are often reused or drawn from a small pool of passwords. Password managers, password generators, and security policies can be used to create and enforce the use of strong and unique passwords for each system and device. It doesn't involve installing antivirus software.
    • Least privilege is a mitigation technique that limits users to the level of access and privilege they need to do their work. This can limit the extent of an attack by limiting the attacker’s access and privilege to those of the compromised user. Least privilege involves applying predefined rules and permissions, such as roles, groups, and functions and enforcing the rules and permissions through mechanisms such as passwords, tokens, and biometrics.
    • Patching is a mitigation technique that can help prevent exploitation of known vulnerabilities on systems and devices by updating them with the latest security fixes and enhancements. Patching involves applying patches or updates to all software and systems, not just those that provide host security like firewalls.

    Tags: Hardening

Question 16

16. A security analyst is investigating a malware incident and finds that the malware has encrypted the data or files on the system and demands money for their decryption or restoration. Which of the following types of malware is MOST likely involved in this incident?

    Options:

    • Keylogger
    • Worm
    • Ransomware
    • Trojan

    Overall explanation:

    • Ransomware is a type of malware that encrypts the data or files on a system and demands a ransom for their decryption or restoration.
    • A Trojan is a type of malware that disguises itself as a legitimate or benign program, but performs malicious actions when executed, such as creating a backdoor for remote access or control.
    • A keylogger is a type of malware that records the keystrokes of the user and sends them to a remote server, allowing an attacker to capture sensitive information such as passwords, credit card numbers, or personal details.
    • A worm is a type of malware that self-replicates and spreads to other systems or networks without user interaction.

    Tags: Malware

Question 17

17. After infiltrating the secure servers of Dion Innovations, an organized crime group discreetly transfers massive amounts of proprietary data to an external location for later sale on the dark web. What is this action an example of?

    Options:

    • Data exfiltration
    • Revenge
    • War
    • Disruption

    Overall explanation:

    • Data exfiltration is the unauthorized act of transferring sensitive data from a target's network to a location controlled by the attacker. Organized crime groups often engage in this activity to obtain valuable data, which they can then monetize by selling it on the black market or using it for other malicious purposes.
    • War, in a cyber context, refers to state-sponsored attacks that are aimed at achieving political, military, or ideological goals. While they can involve data theft, they are broader in scope and are driven by larger geopolitical strategies.
    • Revenge stems from a desire to retaliate against perceived wrongs or grievances. Someone motivated by revenge might target an organization that they feel has wronged them in some way.
    • Disruption center on causing disorder, confusion, or disruption in the target's operations. While it might overlap with other motivations, the primary aim is to create disturbances rather than to extract specific value from the stolen data.

    Tags: Operating System Vulnerabilities

Question 18

18. An employee connects their smartphone to a seemingly legitimate peripheral device using Bluetooth. Unbeknownst to them, the peripheral device has been embedded with malicious firmware, allowing it to execute attacks. What kind of risk is associated with connecting to such devices?

    Options:

    • Bluesnarfing
    • Bluejacking
    • Risk from malicious peripheral devices
    • Device discovery

    Overall explanation:

    • Peripherals with malicious firmware can pose significant risks when connected. They have the potential to launch highly effective attacks. The crafting of such malicious peripherals requires extensive resources, making the risk less frequent but impactful.
    • Device discovery makes a Bluetooth device visible to others nearby. While it can increase the risk of unwanted connections, it doesn't involve the specific threat of malicious firmware in peripherals.
    • Bluejacking involves sending unsolicited messages to Bluetooth devices. It's a form of spam and doesn't refer to the risk of connecting to malicious devices.
    • Bluesnarfing is the act of exploiting Bluetooth vulnerabilities to gain unauthorized access to data on another person's device. It doesn't specifically refer to the risk of connecting to malicious peripherals.

    Tags: Bluetooth Vulnerabilities and Attacks

Question 19

19. Which of the following mitigation techniques can help enforce compliance with security standards and policies on a system or network by designating programs that are allowed to run and blocking all other programs from being run?

    Options:

    • Patching
    • Least Privilege
    • Configuration Enforcement
    • Application allow list

    Overall explanation:

    • Application allow list is a technique that can help enforce compliance with security standards and policies on a system or network by using a list of approved applications that are allowed to run and blocking all other applications that may violate the standards or policies. Application allow list involves using a list of applications that have been verified and authorized by the system or network administrator, and blocking all other applications that may not meet the security requirements or expectations of the system or network.
    • Least privilege is a mitigation technique that limits users to the level of access and privilege they need to do their work. This can limit the extent of an attack by limiting the attacker’s access and privilege to those of the compromised user. Least privilege involves applying predefined rules and permissions, such as roles, groups, and functions and enforcing the rules and permissions through mechanisms such as passwords, tokens, and biometrics. This focuses on limiting the user policies rather than the application itself.
    • Patching is a technique that can help prevent exploitation of known vulnerabilities on systems and devices by updating them with the latest security fixes and enhancements. Patching involves applying patches or updates to software and systems, but it does not use a list of approved applications that are allowed to run and block all other applications that may violate the standards or policies.
    • Configuration enforcement is a mitigation technique that can help prevent unauthorized or improper changes that increase a system or device’s vulnerability to attack. By creating predefined security standards and policies, and enforcing them, configuration enforcement helps prevent the inadvertent or purposeful creation of vulnerabilities and security risks. This focuses on the configuration settings rather than the applications used within a system.

    Tags: Technical Implications of Changes

Question 20

20. Scherazade suspects an attacker has gained access to a network which includes both wireless and wired devices. As she is checking the server configurations, she discovers that a server is using an older encryption protocol. The servers configurations are standardized, so this seems strange. Which of the following network attacks has MOST likely given the attacker access to the network?

    Options:

    • Downgrade
    • Wireless
    • On-path
    • Brute force

    Overall explanation:

    • A downgrade attack is a type of cryptographic attack that involves forcing a communication channel to use a weaker encryption algorithm or protocol, making it easier to decrypt or intercept data.
    • A brute force attack is a type of password attack that involves trying all possible combinations of characters until the correct password is found.
    • An on-path attack is a type of network attack that involves intercepting or modifying data in transit between two parties, such as by using a packet sniffer or a proxy server. While an On-path attack could easily be the result of this attack, the question asks about how the attacker gained access to the data, not the type of attack that could have resulted.
    • A wireless attack is a type of network attack that involves exploiting vulnerabilities or weaknesses in wireless networks or devices, such as encryption, authentication, or configuration. Although there are wireless devices on the network, the scenario doesn't provide evidence that the attacker made use of any wireless vulnerabilities.

    Tags: Cryptographic Attacks

Question 21

21. A system administrator at Kelly Innovations LLC is responsible for managing the company's cloud storage services. After setting up a new cloud storage bucket to store sensitive employee data, the administrator intended to restrict access to a select group of IP addresses but accidentally left the settings open to the public. Soon after, unauthorized users were able to access and download the sensitive data stored in the bucket. Which of the following terms BEST describes the cause of this security incident?

    Options:

    • Cryptographic Attack
    • Misconfiguration
    • Phishing Attack
    • Buffer Overflow

    Overall explanation:

    • Misconfiguration occurs when computing assets are set up or configured incorrectly, leaving them vulnerable to malicious activities. In this scenario, the administrator's error in setting up the cloud storage bucket without the intended restrictions led to unauthorized access, classifying it as a misconfiguration vulnerability.
    • Buffer Overflow is a vulnerability that occurs when a program writes more data to a block of memory, or buffer, than it was allocated for, potentially leading to code execution. This does not apply to the given scenario as it involved configuration errors rather than memory misuse.
    • A Phishing Attack involves attackers masquerading as trustworthy entities to trick individuals into disclosing sensitive information, such as usernames and passwords. While it’s a common method for unauthorized access, it doesn’t relate to the configuration error described in the scenario.
    • Cryptographic Attacks aim to exploit weaknesses in cryptographic systems, either by breaking the algorithm or finding shortcuts to decrypt data. This scenario doesn’t involve cryptographic systems being compromised, but rather an error in configuration settings.

    Tags: Hardware Vulnerabilities

Question 22

22. Which of the following hardening techniques can help prevent buffer overflow attacks on a system or device by using software that can detect and prevent any attempts to write data beyond the allocated memory space of a program?

    Options:

    • Isolation
    • Removal of unnecessary software
    • Disabling ports and protocols
    • Host-based intrusion prevention system (HIPS)

    Overall explanation:

    • Using a Host-based Intrusion Prevention System (HIPS) is a hardening technique that can help prevent attacks from occurring. It is software that is installed on a system or device to detect and prevent unauthorized actions like file modifications and registry changes. Because it can detect and prevent attempts to write data, it can detect and prevent a buffer overflow attack.
    • Disabling ports and protocols is a hardening technique that can help reduce exposure to potential attacks. This can be done on firewalls, switches, routers, and hosts to close or block any network ports or protocols that aren’t needed for the normal operation of the systems and devices. Ports are numerical identifiers that specify the destination or source of network traffic, and protocols are rules or standards that define how network traffic is formatted or transmitted. This will not prevent a buffer overflow attack.
    • Isolation is a mitigation technique that can help prevent malware from spreading from one system or process to another by limiting their interaction and communication. Isolation involves sandboxing or simply disconnecting an infected system. This prevents potentially malicious programs or scripts from accessing the rest of the system or network, but cannot prevent a buffer overflow attack.
    • Removal of unnecessary software is a hardening technique that can help reduce the attack surface of systems and devices by removing unused or unneeded. The more software that is on a system, the more exposure there is to vulnerabilities. If the software is not needed or used, there is no purpose in having extra exposure to vulnerabilities. This will not prevent a buffer overflow attack

    Tags: Hardening

Question 23

23. What type of the threat actor is motivated by beliefs about politics and often targets organizations they disagree with?

    Options:

    • Unskilled Attackers
    • Insider Threats
    • Hacktivists
    • Nation-state Actors

    Overall explanation:

    • A hacktivist is a threat actor that is motivated by philosophical or political beliefs and often targets organizations or governments that they disagree with. Hacktivists may use methods such as defacement, denial-of-service, or data leakage to achieve their goals. They hope defacement and data leaks will discredit the target organizations or governments. Denial-of-service attacks will prevent the organizations and governments from communicating and functioning.
    • Insider Threats are threat actors that have authorized access to an organization’s network, systems, or data. They are often current or former employees who are motivated by revenge, greed, or ideology. Insider Threats may abuse their privileges, leak information, sabotage operations, or collaborate with external actors in order to undermine an organization.
    • Unskilled Attackers are threat actors that have little or no technical skills and are motivated by curiosity, boredom, or personal gain. Unskilled Attackersmay use tools or scripts developed by others to launch attacks without understanding how they work.
    • Nation-state Actors are a type of threat actor that is sponsored by a government or a military and are motivated by gaining information through espionage, conducting warfare, or gaining influence. Nation-state Actors may target other countries, organizations, or individuals that pose a threat to or have different interests than the government that sponsors the Nation-state Actors.

    Tags: Hacktivists

Question 24

24. Which of the following mitigation techniques can help prevent users from making changes to the security features of devices by applying predefined security standards?

    Options:

    • Patching
    • Configuration enforcement
    • Encryption
    • Least Privilege

    Overall explanation:

    • Configuration enforcement is a mitigation technique that can help prevent unauthorized or improper changes that increase a system or device’s vulnerability to attack. By creating predefined security standards and policies, and enforcing them, configuration enforcement helps prevent the inadvertent or purposeful creation of vulnerabilities and security risks.
    • Least privilege is a mitigation technique that limits users to the level of access and privilege they need to do their work. This can limit the extent of an attack by limiting the attacker’s access and privilege to those of the compromised user. Least privilege involves applying predefined rules and permissions, such as roles, groups, and functions and enforcing the rules and permissions through mechanisms such as passwords, tokens, and biometrics. It ensures that users don't have greater access than their job requires, but it doesn't enforce security settings.
    • Encryption is a technique that can help protect data from unauthorized access or modification by transforming it into an unreadable format. Encryption involves using mathematical algorithms and secret keys to encrypt and decrypt data, but it does not ensure that they comply with predefined security standards and policies.
    • Patching is a mitigation technique that can help prevent exploitation of known vulnerabilities on systems and devices by updating them with the latest security fixes and enhancements. Patching involves applying patches or updates to software and systems. It ensures that the software is the most secure version, but does not ensure that the settings comply with predefined security standards and policies.

    Tags: Hardware Vulnerabilities

Question 25

25. Which of the following is a type of race condition that occurs when a process performs an action on a resource without verifying that it is still in the same state or value as when it was last checked?

    Options:

    • Time-of-use (TOU)
    • Time-of-check (TOC)
    • Memory Injection
    • Buffer overflow

    Overall explanation:

    • Time-of-use (TOU) is a type of race condition that occurs when a process performs an action on a resource without verifying that it is still in the same state or value as when it was last checked. It can lead to incorrect or unauthorized actions based on invalid assumptions.
    • Buffer overflow is a type of memory corruption that occurs when a program writes more data than the allocated buffer can hold, causing it to overwrite adjacent memory locations. It can lead to crashes, code execution, or privilege escalation.
    • Time-of-check (TOC) is a type of race condition that occurs when a process checks the state or value of a resource before using it, but another process changes it in between. It can lead to incorrect or unauthorized actions based on outdated information.
    • Memory injection is the insertion of malicious code into a system’s memory, not the exploitation of a time gap between a check and use of a condition.

    Tags: Race Conditions

Question 26

26. Which of the following mitigation techniques involves using mathematical algorithms to transform data into an unreadable format?

    Options:

    • Segmentation
    • Encryption
    • Isolation
    • Patching

    Overall explanation:

    • Encryption is a technique that involves using mathematical algorithms to transform data into an unreadable format. Encryption can protect data from unauthorized access or modification, as only those who have the secret key or algorithm can decrypt the data.
    • Isolation is a mitigation technique that can help prevent malware from spreading from one system or process to another by limiting their interaction and communication. Isolation involves sandboxing or simply disconnecting an infected system. This prevents potentially malicious programs or scripts from accessing the rest of the system or network. It does not transform data into an unreadable format.
    • Segmentation is a mitigation technique that involves dividing a network into smaller segments.  Each has its own security policies and controls. Segmentation can limit the scope of an attack by preventing the attacker from gaining access to an entire network because it will help isolate the compromised segment. It does not transform data into an unreadable format.
    • Patching is a mitigation technique that can help prevent exploitation of known vulnerabilities on systems and devices by updating them with the latest security fixes and enhancements. Patching involves applying patches or updates to software and systems. It does not transform data into an unreadable format.

    Tags: Encryption Tools

Question 27

27. Which of the following BEST describes an example of a hardware supply chain vulnerability?

    Options:

    • Incorrect configurations in server security settings that are difficult to change.
    • Data transmitted over an unsecured network between the vendor's sales department and companies.
    • Use of outdated third-party software libraries that is not effectively secured.
    • Compromised firmware in a device that allows unauthorized remote access.

    Overall explanation:

    • Attackers can inject malicious code into a device's firmware during its manufacture or update, granting them unauthorized remote access.
    • Data transmitted over an unsecured network between the vendor's sales department and companies is more of a network vulnerability than a direct hardware one.
    • Use of outdated third-party software libraries that is not effectively secured relates to a software, not hardware, vulnerability wherein outdated components can be exploited.
    • While a concern, incorrect configurations in server security settings that are difficult to change is not specific to hardware supply chain vulnerabilities.

    Tags: Supply Chain Risks

Question 28

28. A company’s systems were compromised and sensitive data is stolen. Upon investigation, it is discovered that attackers gained access through a Trojan that was installed on one employee's mobile device.  The Trojan was installed on the device when the employee installed a piece of software from a website instead of the official app store. Which of the following describes the source of the problem?

    Options:

    • Side loading
    • Jailbreaking
    • Zero-day vulnerability
    • Mobile device management (MDM) failure

    Overall explanation:

    • Side loading is the process of installing applications on a mobile device from sources other than the official app store, which can allow unauthorized applications to be installed.
    • A zero-day vulnerability is a vulnerability that is unknown to the vendor and can be exploited by attackers, but it does not directly relate to installing unauthorized applications from sources other than the official app store.
    • Jailbreaking is the process of bypassing the security restrictions on a mobile device, which can allow unauthorized applications to be installed, but it is not the only way to install unauthorized applications.
    • Mobile device management (MDM) failure can leave mobile devices vulnerable to unauthorized access or manipulation, but it does not directly relate to installing unauthorized applications from sources other than the official app store.

    Tags: Mobile Vulnerabilities and Attacks

Question 29

29. What is the term for a type of open service port that is commonly used for email servers and can be exploited by attackers to perform spamming, spoofing, or phishing attacks?

    Options:

    • POP
    • IMAP
    • SMTP
    • HTTP

    Overall explanation:

    • Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) port is a type of open service port that is commonly used for email servers. It is most commonly used to perform spamming, spoofing, or phishing attacks because it is used to send and email messages.
    • Post Office Protocol (POP) port is a type of open service port that is commonly used for email clients. It is most commonly used to perform eavesdropping, data theft, or malware delivery attacks because it is used to retrieve email messages from a server.
    • Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) port is a type of open service port that is commonly used for email clients. It is most commonly used to perform eavesdropping, data theft, or malware delivery attacks because it is used to retrieve email messages on a server.
    • Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) port is a type of open service port that is commonly used for web servers and can be exploited by attackers to perform injection attacks, such as SQL injection or cross-site scripting. It is the default port for HTTP, the protocol used to transfer web pages and data.

    Tags: Email Security

Question 30

30. While working remotely, Enrique, an employee at Kelly Innovations LLC, accessed the company's portal to review his tasks for the day. Shortly after, Jamario, a colleague from the IT department, reported observing strange behaviors linked to Enrique's account. He noticed that Enrique's profile settings had been altered. Upon checking the system logs, Jamario found that Enrique had received and clicked on a link from an external forum just moments before the account modifications. The logs also highlighted the presence of a valid session cookie during the incident, but no explicit action from Enrique was recorded to authorize the changes made to his profile. Which of the following BEST pinpoints the attack type Enrique's account on the Kelly Innovations LLC portal might have undergone?

    Options:

    • Cookie encryption breach
    • Session hijacking
    • Cross-site request forgery
    • Replay attack

    Overall explanation:

    • A Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF or XSRF) targets applications using cookies for user authentication and session tracking. Victims are unintentionally maneuvered into performing undesired actions on a website where they're authenticated. The attacker can dispatch an HTTP request to the victim's browser, imitating an action on the target website, such as modifying profile settings, even when the victim doesn't knowingly initiate any such request.
    • In cookie encryption breaches, attackers specifically target and decrypt encrypted cookies during their transmission, aiming to misuse them. While this kind of attack can lead to session hijacking, it doesn't inherently correspond to involuntary actions being executed based on interactions with an external site.
    • In a replay attack, an adversary intercepts and resends valid data transmissions for fraudulent purposes. While it involves unauthorized actions, the scenario's specifics, such as Enrique's engagement with an external link and the unintended profile changes, don't align with this attack's typical manifestation.
    • Session hijacking is the act of overtaking an individual's session, often by procuring their session cookie. While it can result in unauthorized amendments, it's not commonly associated with a victim's interaction with an external link leading to unexpected changes.

    Tags: Session Hijacking, Replay Attacks

Question 31

31. Which of the following mitigation technique is BEST for preventing data breaches from devices that are no longer in use?

    Options:

    • Decommissioning
    • Patching
    • Encryption
    • Isolation

    Overall explanation:

    • Decommissioning is a technique that can help reduce the risk of data breaches or theft by securely disposing of systems and devices that are no longer needed or used. Decommissioning involves following a set of procedures to erase or destroy any sensitive data stored on the systems and devices, and to physically dispose of them in a safe and environmentally friendly manner.
    • Encryption is a technique that can help protect data from unauthorized access or modification by transforming it into an unreadable format. Encryption involves using mathematical algorithms and secret keys to encrypt and decrypt data, but they do not securely dispose of systems and devices that are no longer needed or used. Encryption will help prevent data breaches for unused devices, but decommissioning destroys the data instead of just masking it, so decommissioning is a better choice for unused devices.
    • Isolation is a mitigation technique that can help prevent malware from spreading from one system or process to another by limiting their interaction and communication. Isolation involves sandboxing or simply disconnecting an infected system. This prevents potentially malicious programs or scripts from accessing the rest of the system or network. This mitigation technique will help protect systems that are still in use, but for devices that are no longer used, decommissioning provides much more protection from data breaches.
    • Patching is a technique that can help prevent exploitation of known vulnerabilities on systems and devices by updating them with the latest security fixes and enhancements. Patching involves applying patches or updates to software and systems to devices still in use.  It does little to protect data on devices that are no longer in use.

    Tags: Asset Disposal and Decommissioning

Question 32

32. To protect customers' financial records and adhere to standards set to prevent money laundering and fraud, which of the following is the BEST strategy a bank should adopt?

    Options:

    • Continuous security monitoring and intrusion detection systems
    • Creating a schedule for the creation of regular encrypted data backups
    • Integration of multi-factor authentication for user access
    • Strict adherence to AML/KYC regulations and secure data storage

    Overall explanation:

    • A dual-focused approach where adherence to Anti-Money Laundering (AML) and Know Your Customer (KYC) regulations ensures the bank's practices are in line with legal requirements, while secure data storage measures guarantee customers' financial details remain confidential and protected from breaches.
    • While continuous security monitoring and intrusion detection systems actively observes, logs, and notifies on potential security threats, it does not offer a comprehensive approach towards meeting the specific requirements of financial regulations like AML/KYC.
    • Though adding robustness to the authentication process by requiring users to provide multiple pieces of evidence to access financial data, this method doesn't directly address the regulatory needs of AML/KYC.
    • Creating a schedule for the creation of regular encrypted data backups ensures data remains recoverable in the event of losses and providing an added layer of security through encryption, this approach doesn't focus on the prevention of fraudulent activities or adherence to anti-money laundering regulations.

    Tags:

Question 33

33. Gross Games, a multi-media company, is located in a region prone to natural disasters. Which backup strategy offers the best protection against data loss from catastrophic events?

    Options:

    • Differential backups
    • Data mirroring
    • Offsite backups
    • Onsite backups

    Overall explanation:

    • By storing data in a different geographical location, offsite backups provide an added layer of protection against regional disasters, ensuring data availability even if the primary site is compromised.
    • While differential backups captures only the changes since the last full backup, it doesn't inherently determine the geographical location of the backup storage.
    • Though data mirroring maintains identical data sets in two locations, the effectiveness against disasters depends on the geographic distribution of mirrored sites.
    • While providing swift recovery times, onsite backups in disaster-prone areas risk being affected by the same catastrophic event as the primary data center.

    Tags: Data Backups

Question 34

34. As Reginald, a Chief Security Officer, considers ways to make his company's network more secure, he decides that the network should be divided into a number of parts.  This will make the data stored on the network harder for attackers to find. What technique is he considering?

    Options:

    • Segmentation
    • Masking
    • Tokenization
    • Obfuscation

    Overall explanation:

    • Network segmentation divides a network into smaller parts or sections to reduce congestion, enhance security, and improve performance. It's a strategy to restrict access to certain parts of the network.
    • Data masking is a method to de-identify some or all characters in a sequence, but not changing the total number of characters that a field should contain. The masked version will be structurally the same, but the data will be hidden. Changing the letters or numbers entered into a password field with dots is an example of data masking. Data that is masked will have the same number of characters as the original data, not a smaller set.
    • Obfuscation is the hiding or camouflaging of information to prevent access to it. It's a method of maintaining privacy and confidentiality of data, not a network management strategy.
    • Tokenization is the process of substituting a sensitive data element with a non-sensitive equivalent, referred to as a token. The token and the data it substitutes are stored in a secure database. If the original data is needed, it can be accessed using the token and querying the database. The token will be a different size and have a different structure than the original data so the token can’t be used to decipher the original data.

    Tags: Network Security

Question 35

35. Which technique in High Availability involves distributing network or application traffic across a number of servers to enhance the performance and reliability of applications?

    Options:

    • Geographic dispersion
    • Clustering
    • Frequency
    • Load balancing

    Overall explanation:

    • Load balancing is the process of distributing network or application traffic across multiple servers to ensure no single server becomes a bottleneck, hence enhancing the reliability and availability of applications.
    • Although clustering also promotes high availability, it functions by connecting multiple servers so they act as a single system, not by distributing traffic.
    • Geographic dispersion helps in reducing risk by spreading infrastructure across several locations, but it doesn't participate in managing network and application traffic.
    • In the context of backups, frequency generally refers to the regularity of backups executed. It doesn't relate to the distribution of network or application traffic.

    Tags: Load Balancers

Question 36

36. Ahmed, a software engineer, is considering using more Infrastructure as Code (IaC) within his company. This may be a challenge as a number of employees insist they need their own special configurations and software, commonly called "snowflake systems". Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of eliminating "snowflake systems"?

    Options:

    • To guarantee that repeated calls to the infrastructure result in varied outcomes.
    • To speed up the deployment process of new systems.
    • To reduce the need for manual configuration and patch installations.
    • To avoid inconsistencies that lead to security and stability issues. !!!!

    Overall explanation:

    • While IaC can expedite deployments, the primary purpose of eliminating snowflake systems isn't tied directly to deployment speed but to ensuring system consistency.
    • While IaC promotes automation over manual configurations, the main focus of eradicating snowflake systems is consistency, not automation per se.
    • Guarantee that repeated calls to the infrastructure result in varied outcomes is the opposite of the principle of idempotence, which ensures that repeated calls with the same parameters always produce the same results.
    • Snowflake systems represent unique configurations that can cause drift in platform environments. This can result in unpatched vulnerabilities and systems that don't behave as expected due to minor configuration variances.

    Tags: Infrastructure as Code (IaC)

Question 37

37. Jeanette just bought a new refrigerator. It has the ability to monitor foods that she is running low on and place them on her phone's grocery list app. What is the refrigerator an example of?

    Options:

    • Embedded systems
    • Industrial control systems (ICS)
    • IoT
    • Serverless

    Overall explanation:

    • IoT stands for Internet of Things, which is a network of physical devices that can communicate and exchange data over the internet, such as smart appliances, sensors, or wearables. IoT devices can offer convenience, efficiency, and automation, but they also pose security risks, such as data breaches, unauthorized access, or malware infections.
    • Serverless is an architecture model that involves running code without provisioning or managing servers. It does not refer to a network of physical devices that can communicate and exchange data over the internet.
    • Embedded systems are computer systems that are integrated into larger devices or machines, such as cars, medical devices, or cameras. They are not necessarily connected to the internet or part of an IoT network.
    • Industrial control systems (ICS) are systems that monitor and control industrial processes, such as power generation, water treatment, or manufacturing. They are not necessarily connected to the internet or part of an IoT network.

    Tags: Embedded Systems

Question 38

38. In an environment utilizing Industrial Control Systems (ICS), which of the following aspects is critical to assess, given that certain components might not allow modifications for security improvements?

    Options:

    • Risk Transference
    • Ease of Recovery
    • Inability to Patch
    • Ease of Deployment

    Overall explanation:

    • In Industrial Control Systems (ICS), the inability to patch is a significant concern due to several inherent challenges. Many ICS components are designed to be immutable for stability in critical processes, rendering modifications or updates impossible. Additionally, these systems often rely on continuous operation and use proprietary, sometimes legacy, components, making downtime for updates impractical and vendor-dependent patch availability challenging. This inability to apply timely security updates leaves ICS environments vulnerable to known exploits, potentially compromising system integrity, safety, and production.
    • Ease of Recovery considers how easily a system can be put back online after failure. While older components might impact the ease of recovery, it will probably not be the result of not allowing modification. The inability to patch will directly impact the security of the system.
    • Risk transference refers to the sharing or moving of risk to another party. Having older components in a system may create a need for risk transference, but risk transference is a solution to a security concern, not a factor that should be addressed. The Inability to Patch is a security risk that needs to be considered and addressed when using older components.
    • Ease of Deployment refers to how easy it is to install and implement a system. This may be affected by older components, it isn't a security concern.

    Tags: ICS and SCADA

Question 39

39. Hakeem is a compliance officer at HLM Media.  He is creating a classification system for HLM's data. There is some data that laws require be handled in particular ways. What label should he give the data that is subject to strict compliance standards?

    Options:

    • Regulated
    • Tokenization
    • Confidential
    • Data at rest

    Overall explanation:

    • Regulated data implies that it's a category of data that adheres to specific compliance standards due to its sensitive nature.
    • Data at rest is a state of data, typically stored data. It doesn't designate whether the data adheres to specific compliance standards.
    • Tokenization is a method of protecting sensitive data but does not refer to a type of data.
    • Confidential data might require high standards for handling, but it does not specifically encompass data that adheres to regulatory compliance standards.

    Tags: Data Protection

Question 40

40. Which of the following techniques would be MOST suitable for a developer at Dion Training to ensure user passwords, once transformed, cannot be reverted back to their original form?

    Options:

    • Hashing
    • Private
    • Tokenization
    • Encryption

    Overall explanation:

    • Hashing provides a one-way, irreversible technique for securing data making it appropriate for securing passwords. In other words, a person who gains access to the hashed password won't be able to discover the original password
    • Encryption is the process of converting information or data into a code to prevent unauthorized access. It often uses an algorithm to replace the original data with other data. If a person figures out or acquires the algorithm, the data can be decrypted.
    • Private data relates to data classification and privacy but neither elaborates a method to secure data like passwords.
    • While Tokenization can provide security, it wouldn’t be the best choice for passwords since it is essentially reversible, providing a mapping back to the original data. A person who has access to the database where the token and the password that is linked to the token, can use the token to find the original password.

    Tags: Hashing (OBJ 1.4)

Question 41

41. Which of the following terms refers to a network that is divided into smaller subnetworks based on criteria such as function, location, or security level?

    Options:

    • Physical isolation
    • Air-gapped
    • Software-defined networking (SDN)
    • Logical segmentation

    Overall explanation:

    • Logical segmentation is a technique of dividing a network into smaller subnetworks or segments based on criteria such as function, location, or security level. This provides better performance, security, and manageability of the network.
    • An air-gapped network is a network that is physically isolated from other networks and the internet. This provides a high level of security, but also limits the functionality and connectivity of the network.
    • Software-defined networking (SDN) is a paradigm that decouples the control plane from the data plane in a network, allowing for centralized and dynamic management of network resources and policies. This provides greater flexibility, efficiency, and automation of the network.
    • Physical isolation is a general term that refers to separating network devices or components by physical means, such as cables, switches, routers, or firewalls. This can provide some level of security and performance benefits, but does not necessarily imply logical segmentation.

    Tags: Network Security

Question 42

42. What kind of data is usually shielded from the public view for the protect the security of the individuals concerned?

    Options:

    • Private
    • Regulated
    • Critical
    • Human-readable

    Overall explanation:

    • Private data refers to data that is intended for selected individuals or entities only. It typically includes personal data that should be shielded from public view for security or privacy reasons.
    • Regulated data is subject to specific regulations due to its nature. While it might be private, the term "regulated" encompasses a broader range of data types.
    • The term "Critical" describes data that is important for the functioning of an organization or enterprise. The critical nature doesn't inherently imply the data is shielded from public view.
    • Human-readable refers to data that can be directly understood by a human without the need for interpretation by a machine. It doesn't describe whether the data is shielded from public view.

    Tags: Data Classification

Question 43

43. Which of the following BEST describes the concept where network control is managed by a software application, independent of the hardware?

    Options:

    • Containerization
    • Air-gapped network
    • Logical segmentation
    • Software-defined networking (SDN)

    Overall explanation:

    • SDN decouples network control from the physical infrastructure, centralizing management and offering flexibility.
    • An air-gapped network isolates a network from external connections, focusing on physical separation, not control management.
    • Logical segmentation divides a network into separate units for better traffic management and security but doesn't decouple control from hardware.
    • Containerization packages applications with their environment for consistent behavior but is unrelated to network control.

    Tags: Software-Defined Network (SDN)

Question 44

44. A legal firm handles highly confidential client contracts that detail mergers and acquisitions. To protect these documents while stored on the company's servers, which of the following methods is BEST suited?

    Options:

    • Role-based access control (RBAC)
    • Password protection
    • Data-at-rest encryption
    • Virtual private network (VPN)

    Overall explanation:

    • Encrypting sensitive files while they're stored on hard drives or storage devices ensures they're protected and unreadable without the appropriate decryption keys.
    • Although RBAC can restrict who has access to the contracts, the actual data remains unencrypted, making it susceptible if there's a breach at the storage level.
    • VPNs are primarily used for secure communication over untrusted networks, not specifically for securing stored data.
    • While adding a password to a document provides a level of security, it is not as robust as full data-at-rest encryption, especially for highly confidential documents.

    Tags: Data States

Question 45

45. A financial services firm processes high volumes of transactions daily. To minimize data loss in case of a system failure, which backup frequency is MOST recommended?

    Options:

    • Continuous backups
    • Daily incremental backups
    • Weekly full backups
    • Differential backups

    Overall explanation:

    • Continuous backups allows near-instantaneous backup of changed data, ensuring minimal data loss during failures, especially crucial for high-volume transaction systems.
    • Differential backups saves data changed since the last full backup, often done weekly, leading to potential data loss of several days.
    • Weekly full backups involves backing up the entire database every week, posing a risk of losing up to a week's worth of transactions if a failure occurs.
    • Daily incremental backups captures all the changes made since the last backup, usually done at the end of the day, risking loss of a day’s transactions.

    Tags: Data Backups

Question 46

46. Clumsy Contraptions Engineering is seeking to change its security footing. In the past, they have found that too many pieces of malicious software have gotten past the system.  Their Chief Security Officer believes they need a device which will actively evaluate traffic and reject or modify packets according to policies the company sets. What type of device is the CSO suggesting?

    Options:

    • SASE
    • Inline
    • Fail-close
    • Remote Access

    Overall explanation:

    • Inline devices are designed to interact with network traffic actively and can take actions such as accepting, rejecting, or modifying packets, making them the optimal choice for this scenario.
    • Fail-close refers to what happens when a network encounters errors and exceptions. Fail-close means that when errors occur or exceptions are encountered, the system denies further access. This prevents any further network traffic until the error or exception are dealt with. While this provides greater security, it means that a website can’t be accessed even if the error encountered is minor or doesn’t pose a security threat. This is a response to errors and exceptions, it doesn't read and interact with packets.
    • Secure Access Service Edge (SASE) is a form of cloud architecture that combines a number of services as a single service. By providing services like Software-defined wide are network (SD-WAN), firewalls as a service, secure web gateways, and zero-trust network access, SASE will reduce cost and simplify management while improving security. The integrated nature of the architecture means the technologies used will work together efficiently. It may include a packet analyzer, but that isn't the focus of the architecture.
    • Remote access allows users to connect to a network or a device from a distant location, but it does not pertain to actively interacting with network traffic to reject or modify packets.

    Tags: Infrastructure Considerations

Question 47

47. Which of the following terms refers to the characteristic of a system that ensures minimal disruption in service?

    Options:

    • Ease of recovery
    • Responsiveness
    • High availability
    • Scalability

    Overall explanation:

    • High availability refers to the characteristic of a system or service that ensures minimal downtime or disruption.
    • Ease of recovery refers to the ability to restore a system or service to its normal state after a failure or disruption. It does not refer to the characteristic of a system or service that ensures minimal downtime or disruption in the event of a failure.
    • Scalability refers to the ability of a system or service to handle increased workload without degrading performance or reliability. It does not refer to the characteristic of a system or service that ensures minimal downtime or disruption in the event of a failure.
    • Responsiveness refers to the speed at which a system or service responds to user requests or inputs. It does not refer to the characteristic of a system or service that ensures minimal downtime or disruption in the event of a failure.

    Tags: High Availability

Question 48

48. Cheryl's job at Kelly Innovations LLC involves maintaining a record of all company-owned smartphones. Which of the following is MOST likely to be Cheryl's role at Kelly Innovations?

    Options:

    • Network Administrator
    • Mobile Application Developer
    • Asset Inventory Manager
    • IT Support Specialist

    Overall explanation:

    • The Asset Inventory Manager focuses on tracking and recording all organizational assets.
    • Mobile Application Developers are more concerned with app functionality than hardware inventory.
    • The Network Administrator role involves managing network health and connectivity, not inventorying smartphones.
    • IT support specialists handle technical issues, not necessarily inventory tasks.

    Tags: Asset Management

Question 49

49. Which of the following statements BEST explains the importance of automating user provisioning?

    Options:

    • It reduces the system's overall security.
    • It replaces the need for any form of user authentication.
    • It always eliminates the need for human intervention in any IT process.
    • It ensures timely access to resources and enhances productivity.

    Overall explanation:

    • Automated user provisioning helps in granting immediate access rights, reducing waiting times and hence improving productivity.
    • Automated user provisioning, when done correctly, actually enhances security by ensuring standardized and consistent provisioning processes.
    • While automation can help in provisioning, authentication remains a separate and crucial component of system security.
    • While automation reduces human intervention, oversight and management are still needed, especially for exceptions and audits.

    Tags: Automating Onboarding

Question 50

50. Which of the following BEST describes the initial step to ensure a secure procurement process at Dion Training?

    Options:

    • Check for discounts or bulk pricing.
    • Collaborate with the IT department for installation.
    • Determine the software's compatibility with existing systems.
    • Verify the legitimacy of the software vendor.

    Overall explanation:

    • Before making any purchases, it's essential to ensure the vendor is reputable to avoid acquiring counterfeit or malicious software.
    • Financial considerations, while valid, come after ensuring security.
    • While collaboration is crucial, the first step should be to ensure the vendor's legitimacy.
    • Compatibility is important, but first, you need to ensure you're buying from a reputable source.

    Tags: Vendor Selection and Monitoring

Question 51

51. Which of the following BEST describes compensating controls in information security?

    Options:

    • Standard regulations that all businesses must adhere to.
    • Primary tools for risk management and vulnerability assessment.
    • Software patches and updates applied to fix known vulnerabilities.
    • Alternative measures to mitigate risk when standard controls are not feasible.

    Overall explanation:

    • Compensating controls are security measures that are put in place as alternatives to the primary recommended controls which, for some reason, cannot be implemented.
    • Primary tools for risk management and vulnerability assessment are essential for a holistic security approach, but they don't specifically refer to the concept of compensating controls.
    • Compensating controls are situational and not universally mandatory across all businesses.
    • Software patches and updates applied to fix known vulnerabilities, while important, patches are direct solutions to vulnerabilities and not alternative measures.

    Tags: Security Control Types

Question 52

52. Kelly Innovations LLC has recently faced a series of phishing attacks where attackers are sending emails that appear to be from the company's domain. After an internal investigation, they discover that these emails are not originating from their servers. To cryptographically ensure that an email was actually sent from their domain, which of the following is the BEST mechanism should they implement?

    Options:

    • SPF
    • SMTP
    • DMARC
    • DKIM

    Overall explanation:

    • By implementing DKIM (DomainKeys Identified Mail), Kelly Innovations LLC can sign emails originating from their domain cryptographically. This allows receivers to verify that an email claiming to be from the domain genuinely is.
    • DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance) uses the results of DKIM and SPF checks, but on its own, it doesn't cryptographically sign emails.
    • SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is the standard for sending emails, but it doesn't inherently provide a cryptographic signing mechanism for email authenticity.
    • While SPF (Sender Policy Framework) is valuable in identifying which servers are authorized to send emails on behalf of a domain, it doesn't cryptographically sign the emails for this assurance.

    Tags: Email Security

Question 53

53. Which of the following activities BEST explains the eradication phase in the incident response process?

    Options:

    • Identifying and classifying incidents based on their impact to the organization.
    • Taking steps to prevent any recurrence of the problem.
    • Brainstorming ideas to get rid of potential security problems.
    • Analyzing the evidence and determining the root cause of the incident.

    Overall explanation:

    • The "Eradication" phase in the incident response process involves removing the root cause of the incident from affected systems and networks to prevent its recurrence. This phase is crucial to ensure that the incident does not resurface and cause further damage to the organization.
    • Identifying and classifying incidents based on their severity and impact to the organization is part of the "Detection" phase in the incident response process. This phase involves recognizing that an incident has occurred and understanding its potential implications.
    • Analyzing the evidence and determining the root cause of the incident falls under the "Analysis" phase of the incident response process. This phase comes after containment and aims to understand how the incident occurred and what vulnerabilities were exploited.
    • Developing an incident response plan, defining roles and responsibilities, and conducting regular training and drills belong to the "Preparation" phase of the incident response process. Part of this phase involves brainstorming and considering what can be done if a security problem occurs. This phase ensures that the organization is ready to respond effectively to incidents, but it does not directly involve eradicating the root cause of a specific incident.

    Tags: Incident Response Process

Question 54

54. Dion Training recently set up a new web server for their e-learning platform. The IT team has been tasked with implementing security measures to mitigate potential attacks. Which of the following practices would be MOST effective for server hardening?

    Options:

    • Increasing server storage capacity.
    • Disabling unused services and interfaces.
    • Setting up a guest account for all users.
    • Implementing a least-privilege principle and patch management.

    Overall explanation:

    • Ensuring users only have necessary access limits potential threats. Regularly updating the server software also plays a key role in mitigating vulnerabilities.
    • Guest accounts can introduce more vulnerabilities. It might provide unnecessary access to unauthorized users, which isn't a best practice.
    • While increasing storage can enhance server performance, it doesn't directly improve server security.
    • Disabling unused services can minimize potential vulnerabilities. However, it's just one aspect of a comprehensive server hardening strategy.

    Tags: Hardening

Question 55

55. After remedying a previously identified vulnerability in their systems, Kelly Innovations LLC wants to ensure that the remediation steps were successful. Which of the following the the BEST method that involves examining related system and network logs to enhance the vulnerability report validation process?

    Options:

    • Threat modeling
    • Reviewing event logs
    • Rescanning
    • Patch management

    Overall explanation:

    • Event logs can provide insight into system and process behaviors. By examining these logs, an organization can validate whether a vulnerability has been adequately addressed or if it's still causing issues.
    • Threat modeling is a process of understanding and mapping potential threats but doesn't validate vulnerability remediation through logs.
    • Rescanning is about running the vulnerability scan again to identify remaining vulnerabilities but doesn't provide insights from system and network logs.
    • While it's about keeping systems updated, patch management itself doesn't involve examining logs to validate vulnerability remediation.

    Tags: Vulnerability Scans

Question 56

56. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE concerning the significance of Data Loss Prevention (DLP)?

    Options:

    • DLP solutions help to safeguard sensitive data from being unintentionally distributed.
    • DLP systems have the capability to detect potential data breaches and take preventative action.
    • DLP systems are essential to the development of business systems that prevent malicious actors from accessing systems.
    • DLP tools ensure confidentiality and integrity of sensitive data by enforcing data security policies.

    Overall explanation:

    • DLP tools do analyze data movement and usage within an organization to protect sensitive data. They prevent data loss, not access to systems.
    • DLP systems are capable of identifying potential data breaches and can take corrective and preventative actions, such as alerting administrators or blocking user actions.
    • DLP tools do enforce data security policies and thereby help in maintaining the confidentiality and integrity of sensitive data within the organization.
    • The primary purpose of DLP solutions is to safeguard sensitive data from unauthorized access and inadvertent distribution.

    Tags: Data Loss Prevention (DLP)

Question 57

57. You are a cybersecurity analyst for a large enterprise that relies on an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) to detect and respond to potential security threats. Recently, the organization has observed increased sophisticated cyber attacks that bypass traditional signature-based detection methods. Which of the following approaches would be the MOST effective way to modify the IPS capabilities to enhance security?

    Options:

    • Increasing the frequency of signature updates to ensure the IPS is up-to-date .
    • Shift from using an IPS to using a firewall to block malicious IPs.
    • Decrease the alerting threshold to prevent more malicious IPs from gaining access.
    • Implementing behavior-based analysis on the IPS.

    Overall explanation:

    • Implementing behavior-based analysis in the IDS/IPS allows it to identify abnormal patterns and activities that may not have specific signatures. Sophisticated attacks often employ tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) that differ from known attack signatures. Behavior-based analysis can detect such anomalies and raise alerts, enabling the organization to respond to previously unknown threats effectively.
    • While firewall rules can block known malicious IPs, relying solely on this method neglects the importance of detecting and alerting on potential intrusion attempts.
    • Disabling signature-based detection would eliminate the primary function of the IDS/IPS, which is to identify and alert on suspicious activities and security threats. Increasing signature updates helps the IDS/IPS detect known threats, but it may not be sufficient to detect new, zero-day attacks or variants of known threats that have been modified to evade signature-based detection.
    • Decreasing the alerting threshold will trigger more alerts, which could lead to an overwhelming number of false positives. It could burden the security team with unnecessary investigations, diverting their attention from more critical security incidents. It's essential to strike a balance between minimizing false positives and ensuring that genuine threats are accurately detected. It is unlikely to prevent more malicious IPs from gaining access.

    Tags: IDS and IPS

Question 58

58. You are a security administrator for a large non-profit organization with multiple departments and diverse security requirements. The organization has faced challenges in managing security settings and configurations on individual computers. To improve security and streamline management, you decide to implement Group Policy in the Windows Active Directory environment. Which of the following approaches would be the MOST effective way to implement Group Policy for the given scenario?

    Options:

    • Designing GPOs so that each has no more than 5 users so that monitoring the members of each group is easier and more customizable.
    • Designing multiple GPOs, each tailored to the specific security requirements of individual departments, and applying them accordingly.
    • Implementing Group Policy Preferences to enforce security settings, allowing end-users to modify configurations as needed.
    • Creating a single, comprehensive Group Policy Object (GPO) with all security settings applied uniformly across all departments and computers.

    Overall explanation:

    • Designing multiple GPOs tailored to the specific security needs of individual departments allows for a more granular and effective approach to security management. Different departments may have varying security requirements based on their roles and responsibilities. Creating separate GPOs ensures that each department receives the appropriate security configurations while maintaining centralized management.
    • While a single comprehensive GPO might seem easier to manage, it can lead to conflicts and unintended consequences. Different departments may have unique security requirements, and applying a uniform policy across the entire organization could hinder their ability to operate efficiently. It's essential to have flexibility and granularity in applying security settings.
    • Group Policy Preferences provide additional flexibility and control to end-users to modify settings as needed, which can introduce security risks. The goal of implementing Group Policy is to enforce security settings consistently across the enterprise, ensuring that all computers adhere to the organization's security policies.
    • Creating such small group is unlikely to be an effective use of Group Policies. Monitoring groups will not be made easier or more customizable by limiting the size to 5 users.

    Tags: Group Policies

Question 59

59. In regards to automation and orchestration, which of the following terms accurately captures the challenges faced when dealing with a system characterized by its intricate web of interconnected components and varied functionalities, potentially hindering seamless integration, effortless management, and straightforward comprehension?

    Options:

    • Cost
    • Technical debt
    • Ongoing supportability
    • Complexity

    Overall explanation:

    • Complexity refers to the degree of intricacy in a system or process. In automation and orchestration, high complexity can lead to challenges in maintenance, understanding, and implementation.
    • While high complexity can lead to increased costs, the term 'cost' encompasses a broader range of financial considerations, not just those associated with intricate systems.
    • Ongoing supportability relates to the ease with which a system can be maintained and supported over time, but it doesn't specifically address the intricacy or convolution of a system.
    • While technical debt can be a consequence of complexity, it more specifically refers to the implied cost of additional rework caused by choosing a quicker yet less optimal solution.

    Tags: Automation and Orchestration

Question 60

60. You are a security analyst for an enterprise that has recently experienced several security incidents related to web browsing. Management has decided to implement a centralized proxy solution to enhance security and mitigate the risk of future incidents. Which of the following actions would be the MOST effective way to enhance security with the centralized proxy in the given scenario?

    Options:

    • Enforcing the use of HTTP for all web traffic to ensure compatibility with older browsers.
    • Allowing unrestricted access to internal resources for users who are connected to the corporate network.
    • Permitting employees to install browser extensions from trusted sources to enhance their browsing experience.
    • Implementing SSL inspection to monitor and control encrypted web traffic.

    Overall explanation:

    • SSL inspection, also known as TLS interception or SSL/TLS decryption, allows the centralized proxy to decrypt and inspect encrypted HTTPS traffic. By doing so, the organization gains visibility into the contents of encrypted traffic, ensuring that no malicious content or threats are being transmitted. This enhances security by providing an additional layer of protection against encrypted attacks and data exfiltration.
    • Permitting employees to install browser extensions, even from trusted sources, can introduce security vulnerabilities. Browser extensions may have security flaws or be exploited by attackers to gain unauthorized access or steal sensitive information. Enabling this could undermine the security measures put in place by the centralized proxy.
    • Allowing unrestricted access to internal resources for all users poses significant security risks. It would bypass the security benefits offered by the centralized proxy, making it easier for attackers to gain unauthorized access to sensitive internal systems.
    • Enforcing the use of HTTP is highly insecure. HTTP does not encrypt data, making it susceptible to interception and manipulation. In contrast, HTTPS should be enforced to encrypt web traffic, ensuring data confidentiality and integrity.

    Tags: Web and DNS Filtering

Question 61

61. To enhance security, an organization requires employees to insert a small device into their computer's USB port when logging in. This device proves their identity in combination with something they know, like a password. What are these devices called?

    Options:

    • Biometric scanners
    • Smart cards
    • Physical security keys
    • Software tokens

    Overall explanation:

    • Physical security keys are hardware tokens that can be used as a part of multi-factor authentication, often plugged into a USB port.
    • Although similar, smart cards often require a card reader and may contain additional personal data.
    • Biometric scanners read biological data, like fingerprints or retinas, not something inserted into a USB port.
    • Software tokens are digital or virtual tokens generated by software, not a physical device.

    Tags: Multifactor Authentication (MFA)

Question 62

62. You are a security analyst tasked with investigating a suspected security breach which occurred two days ago which involved a frequently used spreadsheet application. You decide to examine the application logs. Which of the following pieces of information would be MOST valuable in these logs to investigate the incident?

    Options:

    • Details of the users currently online using the spreadsheet application and its macros.
    • The total number of transactions processed by the application in the previous 2 days.
    • Details of failed logins, including timestamps, usernames, and originating IP addresses for the past week.
    • The number of updates performed on the application in the last two months.

    Overall explanation:

    • These kinds of details are essential when investigating a security breach. Multiple failed login attempts, especially from the same IP address, can indicate a potential brute force or password guessing attack. Username information can help pinpoint potential targets or malicious actors within the organization. T
    • he total number of transactions does not provide concrete and specific information to investigate a suspected security breach. The information is too generic, as it does not give any details about potentially problematic transactions.
    • The number of updates performed on the application in the last two months may be useful to ensure application is up-to-date with bug fixes and security improvements but it is not directly insightful for investigating a specific security breach. A specific patch applied or missed may be relevant, but the total number of updates is not particularly informative in this context.
    • While the details of current users could indicate abnormal activity if it varies significantly from the norm, it isn't specific enough to provide valuable information for investigating a specific security incident, especially if the event occurred a few days ago.

    Tags: Application Logs

Question 63

63. Sasha, a cybersecurity analyst at Dion Training Solutions, noticed a trend of employees using the same passwords across multiple work-related platforms. She is concerned about the potential security risks this behavior presents. What should Sasha recommend to BEST mitigate the threat of one compromised password leading to multiple breaches?

    Options:

    • Training users on the dangers of phishing emails.
    • Increasing the frequency of password expiration.
    • Conducting more frequent security audits.
    • Implement a policy discouraging password reuse.

    Overall explanation:

    • By using different passwords for different platforms, the risk of a single compromised password leading to multiple breaches is minimized.
    • While educating users about phishing is essential, it doesn't directly prevent them from reusing passwords on multiple platforms.
    • Regular audits are crucial for cybersecurity, but they don't directly address the issue of password reuse.
    • While increasing the frequency of password expiration can help in some scenarios, it doesn't necessarily deter users from reusing passwords across platforms.

    Tags: Password Security

Question 64

64. Which monitoring technology would be the MOST suitable to gain a comprehensive overview of the health and security status of foundational IT components, including network traffic and interactions between servers?

    Options:

    • Log aggregation tools
    • Vulnerability scanners
    • Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) traps
    • Network intrusion detection system (NIDS)

    Overall explanation:

    • NIDS specializes in monitoring network traffic, analyzing it for signs of security breaches or policy violations, making it the ideal choice for infrastructure monitoring.
    • These tools search for known vulnerabilities within systems or applications, but they don't provide continuous monitoring of network interactions.
    • While SNMP traps can alert administrators to specific events or problems, they don't provide a holistic view of network health like NIDS.
    • Log aggregation tools collect and manage logs, but they don't provide real-time monitoring of network traffic like NIDS.

    Tags: IDS and IPS

Question 65

65. Jason, the CTO of Dion Training Solutions, wants to standardize and simplify the web filtering solutions currently in use across the organization's various branches. He also hopes to have a consolidated view of web traffic reports. Which of the following would BEST meet Jason's needs?

    Options:

    • Implementing a centralized proxy.
    • Deploying local firewalls at each branch.
    • Increasing the frequency of software updates.
    • Adopting a cloud-based storage solution.

    Overall explanation:

    • A centralized proxy allows for the uniform application of web filtering policies across multiple branches and provides consolidated reporting, making management more efficient and streamlined.
    • Local firewalls can control traffic at each location, but they don't provide the centralized management and reporting that Jason is seeking.
    • While regular updates are essential for security, they don't necessarily provide a standardized web filtering approach or consolidated reporting.
    • Cloud-based storage solutions focus on storing and managing data and don't address the need for centralized web filtering or reporting.

    Tags: Web and DNS Filtering

Question 66

66. YoYoDyne Toys recently implemented a firewall to protect its internal network from external threats. The organization wants to modify the firewall rules to enhance security and reduce potential attack surfaces. Which firewall rule modification would be the MOST appropriate for the organization to enhance security?

    Options:

    • Enabling port forwarding for internal servers to the public IP addresses.
    • Allowing incoming traffic from any source that doesn't use port 443.
    • Creating firewall rules that prioritize network performance.
    • Restricting incoming traffic to specific necessary ports and sources.

    Overall explanation:

    • Restricting incoming traffic to specific necessary ports and sources is a best practice to enhance security. By defining firewall rules that allow only essential services and traffic from trusted sources, the organization can minimize the attack surface and reduce the risk of unauthorized access and potential threats. This approach follows the principle of least privilege, where only the minimum required access is granted, thereby enhancing the overall security of the enterprise network.
    • Firewall rules that prioritize network performance usually increase, rather than decrease, attack surfaces. This isn't an appropriate way to enhance security.
    • Allowing incoming traffic from any other ports will prevent a lot of traffic from coming into YoYoDyne and dramatically reduce their attack surfaces. However, it will prevent a lot of legitimate traffic as well. This isn't an appropriate way to reduce attack surfaces for a business.
    • Enabling port forwarding for internal servers to public IP addresses may be necessary for specific services, but it should be done with caution. Port forwarding must be done selectively and only for specific services that require external access.
    • In many cases, it can introduce security risks if not properly configured and controlled. Therefore, while port forwarding may be a valid configuration, it is not the most appropriate firewall rule modification for enhancing security in this scenario.

    Tags: Firewalls for Security

Question 67

67. Jason is working with David to enhance the security of the switches at Dion Training. Which technique would be the BEST for them to prioritize?

    Options:

    • Disable unused ports.
    • Use default VLAN for all operations.
    • Enable SNMP monitoring.
    • Implementing regular system backups on the switches.

    Overall explanation:

    • By disabling unused ports, you limit the entry points for potential intruders, making it harder for unauthorized devices to connect to the network.
    • While regular backups are crucial for data recovery and business continuity, they do not directly enhance the security of switches. Backing up a switch's configuration can be useful for recovery purposes, but it doesn't actively protect the switch from threats or unauthorized access.
    • Using a default VLAN can expose traffic and doesn't segregate sensitive data. This is less optimal compared to managing open ports.
    • While SNMP can provide valuable insights and monitoring, it doesn't directly harden the switch's security against unauthorized connections like disabling unused ports does.

    Tags: Network Appliances

Question 68

68. In a large multinational corporation, the access control mechanism dynamically evaluates various user features such as job role, department, location, and time of access to determine access rights to specific resources. Which type of access control mechanism is being used in this scenario?

    Options:

    • Role-Based
    • Discretionary
    • Rule-Based
    • Attribute-Based

    Overall explanation:

    • In the scenario described, the access control mechanism used in the large multinational corporation is "Attribute-Based access control" (ABAC). In an ABAC system, access permissions are dynamically evaluated based on various user attributes, such as job role, department, location, and time of access. The system combines these attributes to make access control decisions, allowing for more fine-grained and context-aware access control.
    • "Discretionary access control" (DAC) allows individual users to have discretion or control over the access permissions of their resources. In a DAC system, owners of resources can determine who has access and what level of access they are granted based on their own judgment. The scenario does not describe users having this level of discretion over access rights, but rather an automated evaluation of features for access control.
    • "Rule-based access control" is a broad term that can encompass various access control mechanisms. While the scenario mentions the dynamic evaluation of user attributes, access permissions are made based on the combination of various features.
    • "Role-Based access control" (RBAC) is a mechanism where access to resources is determined based on the roles or job functions of users. Users are assigned specific roles, and access permissions are associated with those roles. However, in the scenario, the access control mechanism is described as evaluating various attributes, including job role, location, and time of access, rather than being solely based on predefined roles.

    Tags: Access Control Models

Question 69

69. Which of the following statements BEST explains the importance of E-discovery in incident response?

    Options:

    • E-discovery dictates the steps in preserving evidence in its original state to maintain its integrity for future forensic or legal needs.
    • E-discovery involves examining drivers to find data that is electronically stored to use them for evidence.
    • E-discovery is a step in the process of documenting the details of a security incident, its impact, and potential remedies.
    • E-discovery requires the finding and recognizing potential threats or breaches in the security infrastructure to prevent incidents.

    Overall explanation:

    • E-discovery is an essential component of incident response and primarily relates to the collection and handling of electronic data. It is designed to be used as evidence in legal cases and includes in its scope anything that is stored electronically - emails, documents, databases, presentation files, voicemails, video/audio files, social media posts, and more.
    • Although the process of preserving evidence is essential during an incident response phase, it is principally linked to the Preservation phase and not specifically E-discovery.
    • Documenting the details of an incident, its impacts, and potential remedies typically occurs during the reporting phase, and not in the process of E-discovery.
    • While identifying and recognizing threats or breaches is critical, it principally manifests in the Detection and Analysis phase, not E-discovery.

    Tags: Digital Forensic Procedures

Question 70

70. Which of the following statements BEST explains the importance of Training employees about the incident response process?

    Options:

    • Training ensures that incident response team members quickly react to an incident.
    • Training helps identify and classify incidents and determine their impact to the organization.
    • Training makes it easier to prevent social engineering attacks so incidents never occur.
    • Training ensures that incident response team members are adequately compensated for their efforts during an incident.

    Overall explanation:

    • Training is crucial in the incident response process because it ensures that incident response team members are knowledgeable and well-prepared to handle security incidents effectively and efficiently. Training equips them with the necessary skills, knowledge, and best practices to recognize, contain, eradicate, and recover from incidents.
    • Training to avoid social engineering is a good idea and may reduce incidents, but it is only one type of incident that may occur. Training ensures that the response team knows what to do if an event occurs.
    • While compensating incident response team members appropriately is essential for their dedication and efforts, it is not the primary purpose of training. Training focuses on building skills and knowledge to respond effectively to incidents.
    • Identifying and classifying incidents based on their severity and impact is part of the incident response process, but it is not directly related to the importance of training.

    Tags: Incident Response Training and Testing

Question 71

71. An organization aims to elevate its security posture through improved system configurations. Which of the following BEST describes how automation supports this initiative?

    Options:

    • Enhancing user authentication protocols.
    • Accelerating hardware upgrades.
    • Enforcing consistent baselines across devices.
    • Facilitating remote team collaborations.

    Overall explanation:

    • Automated tools can apply predefined configurations across multiple devices, ensuring uniformity and adherence to security standards.
    • Automation can assist in software configurations and updates, but it doesn't directly speed up physical hardware upgrades.
    • Automation of configurations doesn't primarily focus on team collaborations. Collaboration tools and platforms serve this purpose.
    • While automation can streamline authentication processes, its primary role in terms of configurations isn't to enhance authentication methods.

    Tags: Automation and Orchestration

Question 72

72. Which of the following statements BEST explains the Dark Web in the context of vulnerability management?

    Options:

    • The dark web is an encrypted network that facilitates anonymous communication and is commonly associated with illegal activities
    • The dark web is a secure network used by cybersecurity professionals to conduct vulnerability assessments and penetration testing on hardware and software assets.
    • The dark web is a portion of the internet that is primarily used by penetration testers to find tools and techniques for penetrating systems.
    • The dark web refers to a section of the internet where people can find ways to attack system by using search engines like Google and Bing.

    Overall explanation:

    • The dark web is an encrypted network that allows anonymous communication and is commonly associated with illegal activities, such as the sale of drugs, stolen data, and various other illicit goods and services. Understanding the dark web is essential for vulnerability management to be aware of potential threats and risks related to hardware, software, and data asset management.
    • While cybersecurity professionals may use various networks and tools for vulnerability assessments and penetration testing, the dark web is not a secure network specifically designed for these purposes. It is primarily associated with illegal activities and not intended for legitimate cybersecurity assessments.
    • The dark web is not part of the public internet and is not accessible through search engines like Google and Bing. It requires specialized software and configurations to access.
    • The dark web does contain tools and techniques for penetrating systems, however, it is used by many people. It is not primarily used by penetration testers.

    Tags: Threat Intelligence Feeds

Question 73

73. Which of the following terms describes a risk evaluation method that operates without interruption to provide real-time data, allowing organizations to rapidly detect and respond to emerging threats?

    Options:

    • Incident response
    • Risk analysis
    • Periodic review
    • Continuous assessment

    Overall explanation:

    • Continuous assessment refers to an ongoing, real-time process of evaluating risks to ensure that an organization can quickly identify and respond to new threats.
    • Incident response is the process an organization follows after a risk has materialized into a security event, which is a reactive measure rather than a continuous assessment process.
    • A periodic review refers to the scheduled examination of systems and risks which, unlike continuous assessment, does not occur in real time.
    • Risk analysis is a broader term that involves examining the identified risks to understand their nature, but it doesn't specifically mean the continuous, real-time process.

    Tags: Risk Management

Question 74

74. If a company's server has an estimated Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) of $15,000 due to an operational failure, and the Annual Rate of Occurrence (ARO) of these failures is expected to be 0.1 times per year, what is the Annual Loss Expectancy (ALE)?

    Options:

    • $15,000
    • $150
    • $1,500
    • $150,000

    Overall explanation:

    • The ALE is calculated by multiplying the SLE by the ARO. With an SLE of $15,000 and an ARO of 0.1, the ALE equals $1,500 ($15,000 * 0.1 = $1,500). This represents the expected yearly financial loss due to operational failures.

    Tags: Quantitative Risk Analysis

Question 75

75. Dion Training is conducting a security awareness training program for its employees to enhance their cybersecurity knowledge. As part of this program, they have planned and executed phishing campaigns. Which of the following BEST describes the primary objective of phishing campaigns conducted during security awareness training?

    Options:

    • To trick employees into revealing sensitive information.
    • To prevent any form of malware from spreading within the organization's network.
    • To promote a competitive environment among employees.
    • To test employees' ability to recognize and report phishing attempts.

    Overall explanation:

    • The main objective of phishing campaigns conducted during security awareness training is to test employees' ability to identify and report phishing attempts. These campaigns are designed to simulate real-world phishing attacks to gauge how well employees can recognize suspicious emails and report them to the appropriate authorities.
    • The primary objective of phishing campaigns is not to trick employees into revealing sensitive information.
    • The primary objective of phishing campaigns is not to promote a competitive environment among employees.
    • While phishing may involve malware, it doesn't always. In addition, preventing phishing won't prevent any form of malware from spreading on a network.

    Tags: Phishing

Question 76

76. In what type of penetration testing are the testers given usernames, passwords, and other information that would normally be gathered in the first phase?

    Options:

    • Known environment
    • Partially known environment
    • Reconnaissance
    • Unknown environment

    Overall explanation:

    • Penetration testing in a known environment means that a significant amount of information has been given to the tester. This can include passwords, usernames, and other information.
    • Penetration testing in an unknown environment means that the tester is not given any information, so they must begin with reconnaissance.
    • Reconnaissance is the initial phase of a penetration test, where information gathering and data collection occur without directly engaging the target. It is not a type of penetration testing, but rather a preparatory phase.
    • This type of penetration testing occurs in an environment where some information about the target systems is available to the tester, but not all details are known. It is likely that a tester in this environment would still need to complete the reconnaissance phase.

    Tags: Penetration Testing

Question 77

77. Samantha found her personal information on a marketing website that she had not used in years. She requested the website to remove her details, citing the "right to be forgotten" as defined in the GDPR. Under which circumstances might her request for data erasure be denied by the data controller?

    Options:

    • The personal data is no longer relevant to the original purposes for processing.
    • Samantha consented to the processing and use of her personal data in the past.
    • The website has already taken steps to anonymize Samantha's personal data.
    • The data is necessary for the website to exercise the right of freedom of expression.

    Overall explanation:

    • The data is necessary for the website to exercise the right of freedom of expression could potentially be a legitimate ground for the website to refuse Samantha's request if they can demonstrate that the data in question is crucial for such purposes.
    • The personal data is no longer relevant to the original purposes for processing actually supports Samantha's request for erasure, as the GDPR stipulates that data should be deleted when it's no longer necessary for the purposes it was collected for. If Samantha's personal data had been anonymized, it would no longer be considered personal data under the GDPR, and the right to be forgotten would not apply.
    • Previous consent does not invalidate a request for erasure under the right to be forgotten, as individuals are allowed to withdraw their consent at any time under the GDPR.

    Tags: Data Sovereignty

Question 78

78. At Dion Training, the management team is preparing to conduct both internal and external compliance reporting. They aim to ensure that stakeholders are appropriately informed about the company's compliance status. Which of the following statements accurately reflect the distinct purposes of internal and external compliance reporting at Dion Training? (Select TWO).

    Options:

    • Adheres to regulatory requirements
    • Supports internal decision-making
    • Improves product development
    • Enhances marketing strategies
    • Facilitates team assignments

    Overall explanation:

    • Internal compliance reporting is designed to give detailed insights to internal stakeholders like executives and security analysts, assisting in strategic planning and operational improvements.
    • External compliance reporting is crafted to meet the mandatory disclosures and inform external stakeholders such as regulators and shareholders about the company's compliance status at a high level.
    • The goal of compliance reporting is not directly linked to the facilitation of team assignments, which is more related to internal operational management than compliance reporting.
    • Compliance reporting does not primarily aim to enhance marketing strategies but rather to ensure transparency and accountability regarding compliance.
    • While compliance can indirectly affect product development by ensuring that products meet legal standards, it is not the direct aim of either internal or external reporting.

    Tags: Compliance

Question 79

79. David, a project manager at Dion Training, ensures that details of his upcoming product release are shared only on a need-to-know basis, even within the company. He's wary of information leaks that could benefit competitors. Which of the following terms BEST describes David's approach?

    Options:

    • Access control
    • Data masking
    • Data loss prevention
    • Operational security

    Overall explanation:

    • Operational security is a risk management process that encourages managers to view information protection from an adversary's perspective.
    • Data masking is a method for creating a sanitized version of data with fictitious yet realistic information.
    • Data loss prevention is a set of tools and processes designed to detect a potential data breach and prevent them by monitoring and controlling data transfers.
    • Access control determines who is allowed to access a resource and what actions they can perform with it.

    Tags: Risk Management, Avoiding Social Engineering

Question 80

80. Reed, a disgruntled employee at Dion Training, began copying sensitive company data onto a flash drive, planning to sell it to a competitor after feeling overlooked for a promotion. Which of the following terms BEST describes Reed's actions?

    Options:

    • Data breach
    • Exfiltration
    • Ransomware
    • Insider threat

    Overall explanation:

    • Insider threat is an individual within an organization who has inside information concerning its security practices, data, and computer systems poses a potential risk when they act maliciously.
    • A data breach a security incident where information is accessed without authorization, but doesn't specify the actor's affiliation with the organization.
    • Exfiltration is the act of transferring data from a computer, but it does not specify the motivation or the actor behind it.
    • Ransomware is a type of malicious software designed to block access to data until a sum of money is paid.

    Tags: Insider Threats

Question 81

81. Which of the following BEST describes the primary objective of external compliance reporting?

    Options:

    • To request acknowledgement from data subjects for compliance purposes.
    • To share compliance information with the organization's management.
    • To report compliance status to the public and stakeholders.
    • To conduct audits for compliance purposes.

    Overall explanation:

    • External compliance reporting involves disclosing the company's compliance status, activities, and efforts to the public, stakeholders, regulatory authorities, and other external entities. This transparency fosters trust and accountability.
    • Requesting acknowledgment from data subjects is more aligned with obtaining consent for data processing rather than external compliance reporting.
    • External compliance reporting is not aimed at sharing compliance information within the organization's management. Internal audits are conducted within the organization to assess compliance with policies and procedures.

    Tags: Compliance

Question 82

82. David, a network administrator at Dion Training, notices unusual traffic patterns from a specific IP address. He documents the time, source IP, destination, and the nature of the traffic. He then forwards this information to the cybersecurity team for further analysis. Which of the following BEST describes the type of report David just created for the cybersecurity team?

    Options:

    • Trend analysis
    • Initial report
    • Risk assessment
    • Forensic report

    Overall explanation:

    • The first report made to highlight an incident or suspicious activity. It typically includes basic information and is used to alert relevant teams or departments.
    • Trend analysis looks for patterns over time to make predictions about the future.
    • David has provided the initial report of an incident. A risk assessment is a report identifying potential vulnerabilities and threats, assessing the potential impact and likelihood of them occurring.
    • A forensic report is a detailed analysis typically made after an investigation, containing evidence, methodologies, and conclusions about a security incident.

    Tags: Vulnerability Reporting

Question 83

83. At Kelly Innovations LLC, an internal audit has highlighted some concerning practices. Employee Jason routinely ignores reminders to update his security software, contrary to the company's strict update policy. This procrastination could leave the network vulnerable to new threats that the updates would otherwise mitigate. Concurrently, Jamario, known for jotting down his passwords on post-it notes around his workspace, has inadvertently shared his credentials with several coworkers, breaching internal security protocols. On a separate occasion, sensitive information was uploaded to a public cloud service without a VPN, and a phishing email was clicked, triggering a malware alarm. Based on the audit findings at Kelly Innovations LLC, which of the following is the risky behavior that needs the MOST immediate attention to prevent potential security breaches?

    Options:

    • Ignoring security reminders and physical note-taking.
    • Postponing security software updates and poor password management.
    • Accidental data exposure and phishing susceptibility.
    • Violation of VPN policy and interaction with phishing emails.

    Overall explanation:

    • Delaying the installation of critical software updates, as Jason does, and managing passwords in an insecure manner, as Jamario does, are direct risky behaviors that significantly increase the vulnerability of the company's data and systems.
    • Ignoring security reminders to update software is part of Jason's risky behavior, but it doesn't capture the full scope of the issue. Similarly, while Jamario's physical note-taking of passwords is insecure, it doesn't convey the full risk of poor password management.
    • While accidental data exposure and phishing susceptibility are serious security concerns, they are consequences of risky behavior rather than the risky behavior itself.
    • Violation of VPN policy and interaction with phishing emails are indicative of risky behavior, but they are specific instances that occurred as a result of the broader risky behaviors identified in the audit report.

    Tags:

Question 84

84. Which of the following BEST describes the primary role of an audit committee in the context of cybersecurity?

    Options:

    • Overseeing cybersecurity risks and ensuring regulatory compliance.
    • Engaging in comprehensive policy negotiations with cybersecurity insurance providers.
    • Handling the execution and implementation of cybersecurity measures.
    • Directly managing IT teams to address every security incident in the organization.

    Overall explanation:

    • The audit committee plays a pivotal role in making sure that the organization meets necessary regulatory standards while also acknowledging the evolving cybersecurity landscape.
    • While insurance is essential, the audit committee's primary role isn't focused on detailed negotiations with insurance carriers.
    • While the audit committee provides oversight, they typically don't delve into the specifics of cybersecurity implementations. Their emphasis is on strategic oversight and governance, rather than managing the minutiae of daily IT operations.

    Tags: Audits and Assessments

Question 85

85. Which of the following involves an authorized testing of the security of a third-party by actively engaging the third-party's system?

    Options:

    • Penetration testing
    • Vendor monitoring
    • Supply chain analysis
    • Vendor assessment

    Overall explanation:

    • Penetration testing is the practice of conducting authorized simulated attacks on a vendor's network or systems to identify potential security weaknesses and vulnerabilities.
    • Supply chain analysis involves examining the security of companies and suppliers for a vendor. It wouldn't normally include an active engagement with a vendors' system.
    • Vendor assessment involves evaluating various aspects of a vendor's capabilities, including security measures, to determine if they meet the organization's requirements. This is usually done through methods other than a formal penetration test.
    • Vendor monitoring involves continuously tracking and evaluating a vendor's performance and compliance with the agreed-upon terms and security standards. It doesn't involve an active engagement of their third-party system.

    Tags: Vendor Assessment

Question 86

86. John is reviewing an assessment where it has been determined that a successful cyber attack could result in significant operational downtime and data recovery costs, totaling approximately $500,000. Which term BEST quantifies the severity of this potential event?

    Options:

    • Impact
    • Probability
    • Likelihood
    • Exposure factor

    Overall explanation:

    • Impact specifically refers to the magnitude of the consequences if a risk event occurs, typically assessed in terms of financial loss, operational disruption, or other forms of damage.
    • While probability quantifies the likelihood of a risk event occurring, it does not measure the severity of the consequences of the event.
    • The exposure factor (EF) is a component used to calculate the Single loss expectancy (SLE) by representing the percentage of loss an asset would suffer from a risk event. It does not, by itself, quantify the overall severity of potential consequences.
    • Similar to probability, likelihood assesses the chance of a risk event happening but does not directly quantify the severity of the event's consequences.

    Tags: Risk Management

Question 87

87. Which of the following objectives is primarily fulfilled by using questionnaires during vendor assessments?

    Options:

    • To establish the groundwork for future contractual negotiations.
    • To obtain detailed insights into the vendor’s security posture and risk management. !!!!!!
    • To facilitate a comparative analysis of the financial aspects of vendor proposals.
    • To assess the effectiveness of a vendor’s marketing and promotional tactics.

    Overall explanation:

    • Contract negotiations indeed require understanding of a vendor's practices, but questionnaires are specifically employed to gain a comprehensive understanding of their security and risk management, not as a basis for contract terms.
    • To obtain detailed insights into the vendor’s security posture and risk management is the primary goal of a questionnaire in the vendor assessment process, ensuring that the organization can ascertain the vendor's adherence to security policies, disaster recovery plans, and compliance with regulations.
    • Evaluating marketing strategies is not the purpose of security questionnaires; these tools are meant to delve into the vendor's security controls and procedures to manage and mitigate risks.
    • While financial considerations are important in vendor assessments, the questionnaires are tailored to extract security-related information rather than to compare costs directly.

    Tags: Vendor Assessment

Question 88

88. Which of the following BEST describes an organizational structure that allows for autonomous decision-making in separate departments or sectors within the company?

    Options:

    • Matrix structure
    • Hierarchical management
    • Flat organization
    • Decentralized governance

    Overall explanation:

    • In decentralized governance, decision-making is distributed among various departments or sectors, promoting responsiveness and specialization.
    • While matrix structure involves multiple reporting lines, it does not solely define the decision-making autonomy of departments.
    • Flat organization refers to an organization with few or no levels of middle management between staff and executives, which affects management layers but not necessarily decision-making distribution.
    • Hierarchical management implies a top-down approach to decision-making and does not necessarily allow for autonomy in separate departments.

    Tags: Centralized vs Decentralized Architectures

Question 89

89. Every month, Sasha from Kelly Innovations LLC reviews the company's firewall logs, intrusion detection system outputs, and other security tool logs. She compiles a document detailing trends, potential threats, and recommended actions, which she presents to the senior management. Which of the following types of reports BEST describes the one Sasha producing for the senior management?

    Options:

    • Incident report
    • Threat intelligence briefing
    • Recurring report
    • Policy review

    Overall explanation:

    • A recurring report is a report generated at regular intervals, such as weekly, monthly, or quarterly, to keep stakeholders updated on ongoing security metrics, trends, and concerns.
    • A policy review is a periodic assessment of the organization's security policies to ensure they remain current and effective.
    • A threat intelligence briefing is a specialized report highlighting current and emerging threats, often sourced from external threat intelligence providers.
    • An incident report is a detailed account of a specific security breach or event, outlining what occurred, its impact, and the steps taken in response.

    Tags: Automated Reports

Question 90

90. At Naval Gazing, the risk management team is working on quantifying the potential financial impact of specific risks that the organization may face. Their goal is to determine the expected financial loss for each of the risks they have identified over the next five years. What element of risk management are they engaging in?

    Options:

    • Risk register
    • Risk identification
    • Risk analysis
    • Risk assessment

    Overall explanation:

    • Risk analysis is a crucial part of the risk management process where the financial impact of specific risks is determined through quantitative and qualitative methods. It includes calculating the expected financial loss for a particular risk over a given period.
    • Risk assessment involves evaluating and prioritizing identified risks based on their potential impact and likelihood of occurrence.
    • The risk register is a comprehensive record of all identified risks, along with their potential impacts and mitigation strategies.
    • Risk identification is the initial step in the risk management process, where potential risks are identified and documented within the organization's environment.

    Tags: Quantitative Risk Analysis, Risk Management